Answer:
the answer for the first question is $166667.
the answer for the second question is $210526
the answer for the third question is An inverse.
Explanation:
given information that i will invest in a $10000 scholarship that will pay forever.
the interest rate charged is 6.00% per annum therefore this is a perpetuity present value problem where there is streams of income forever therefore we use the formula :
Pv of perpetuity= Cf/r
where Cr is the cash flows payed by the single investment forever in this case $10000 then r is the interest rate of the investment amount which is 6% in this case.
Pv of Perpetuity= $10000/6%
=$166667 therefore i must invest this amount to get the scholarship running with streams of $10000 forever.
in the second problem if now the interest rate is changed from 6% to 4.75% then the amount to be invested would be :
Pv of perpetuity = $10000/4.75%
=$210526 therefore this is the amount to be invested for a forever $10000 stream of incomes for a scholarship.
the relationship is indirect cause as the interest rate decreases the present value of the perpetuity that must be invested increases.
Answer:
The first dramatic swing happened in the 1970s when there was a sharp <em><u>rise</u></em> in the real price of oil caused by the <em><u>formation of OPEC.</u></em>
In 1973, the World saw it's first oil spike when members of the Organization of Oil Exporting Countries (OPEC) being mostly Muslims, decided to punish the Western World for their perceived support of the Israelis in the Yom Kippur War. They placed an embargo on the sale of oil to the West and because they controlled 56% of the then World supply, this was enough to force the price of oil up due to the reduction in demand.
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The second swing happened in the 2000s when there was a sharp <em><u>rise</u></em><u> </u>in the real price of oil caused by <em><u>increased demand from emerging economies.</u></em>
From the early 2000s to 2008, the price of oil kept rising steadily till it reached around $147.30 in July 2008. This rise in prices was due to increased demand from newly industrialized and emerging nations like China that needed the oil to maintain their rapid growth.
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The most recent swing happened in 2008 when there was a sharp <em><u>drop</u></em><em> </em>in the real price of oil caused by<em> </em><em><u>a large financial crisis.</u></em><em> </em>
By December 2008, the price of oil had fallen to $32 and this was down to the global recession that was ravaging the World known as the Great Recession. As the world saw economic output fall, demand for oil decreased sharply thereby forcing the price of oil to fall dramatically.
Answer:
June 30, 2020 Bond Interest expense Debit $5,756.25
Discount on Bonds payable Credit $506.25
Cash Credit $5,250
Explanation:
We have to calculate the interest expense. The bond interest expense = Cash payment + bond amortization discount
Given,
Bond price = $150,000
Interest = 7%
Number of period, n = 10 years × 2 (As it is a semiannual bond) = 20
Cash payment for semiannual interest = $150,000 × 0.07 × (1÷2)
Cash payment for semiannual interest = $5,250 (Credit)
Amortized bond discount (discount on bonds payable) = $10,125 ÷ 20 (as it is a semiannual payment and $10,125 is for 10 years)
Discount on bonds payable = $506.25 (Credit)
Therefore, bond interest expense = $5,250 + $506.25 = $5,756.25 (Debit)
Answer:
![\left[\begin{array}{cccc}-&Budget&Variance&Actual\\IL&10,000&700&9,300\\IM&11000&-3,800&14,800\\Utilities&7,400&-2,400&9,800\\Maintenance&6,000&1,200&4,800\\Total \: Variable&34,400&-4,300&38,700\\Supervisor&35,400&0&35,400\\Depreciation&7,100&0&7100\\PT and insurance&7,700&-600&8,300\\Maintenance&6,000&0&6,000\\Total \: Fixed&56,200&-600&56,800\\Total \: MO&90,600&-4,900&95,500\\\end{array}\right]](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=%5Cleft%5B%5Cbegin%7Barray%7D%7Bcccc%7D-%26Budget%26Variance%26Actual%5C%5CIL%2610%2C000%26700%269%2C300%5C%5CIM%2611000%26-3%2C800%2614%2C800%5C%5CUtilities%267%2C400%26-2%2C400%269%2C800%5C%5CMaintenance%266%2C000%261%2C200%264%2C800%5C%5CTotal%20%20%5C%3A%20Variable%2634%2C400%26-4%2C300%2638%2C700%5C%5CSupervisor%2635%2C400%260%2635%2C400%5C%5CDepreciation%267%2C100%260%267100%5C%5CPT%20and%20insurance%267%2C700%26-600%268%2C300%5C%5CMaintenance%266%2C000%260%266%2C000%5C%5CTotal%20%5C%3A%20Fixed%2656%2C200%26-600%2656%2C800%5C%5CTotal%20%5C%3A%20MO%2690%2C600%26-4%2C900%2695%2C500%5C%5C%5Cend%7Barray%7D%5Cright%5D)
Explanation:
We list them and subtract budget - actual
When actual is greater than budget the variance is negatine.
While budget being lower than actual is considered a positive variance.
Answer:
C) ABC 5% and DEF 5.7%
Explanation:
Data provided in the question:
Purchasing Cost of Stock ABC purchased = $40 per share
Purchasing Cost of Stock DEF purchased = $35 per share
Time = 6 months
Selling price of share of ABC = $42 per share
Selling price of DEF share = $36
Dividend paid to the DEF = $0.5 each quarter i.e $0.5 twice in 6 months
Thus,
Total dividend paid to DEF = $0.5 × 2
= $1
Now,
For ABC
Total return = Selling price - Purchasing Cost
= $42 - $40
= $2 per share
thus,
Holding period return = [ Total return ÷ Purchasing cost ] × 100%
= [ $2 ÷ $40 ] × 100%
= 5%
For DEF
Total return = Selling price + Dividend received - Purchasing Cost
= $36 + $1 - $35
= $2 per share
thus,
Holding period return = [ Total return ÷ Purchasing cost ] × 100%
= [ $2 ÷ $35 ] × 100%
= 5.7%
Hence,
option C) ABC 5% and DEF 5.7%.
