Answer:
Step-by-step explanation:
According to the central limit theorem, if independent random samples of size n are repeatedly taken from any population and n is large, the distribution of the sample means will approach a normal distribution. The size of n should be greater than or equal to 30. Given n = 100 for both scenarios, we would apply the formula,
z = (x - µ)/(σ/√n)
a) x is a random variable representing the salaries of accounting graduates. We want to determine P( x > 52000)
From the information given
µ = 50402
σ = 6000
z = (52000 - 50402)/(6000/√100) = 2.66
Looking at the normal distribution table, the probability corresponding to the z score is 0.9961
b) x is a random variable representing the salaries of finance graduates. We want to determine P(x > 52000)
From the information given
µ = 49703
σ = 10000
z = (52000 - 49703)/(10000/√100) = 2.3
Looking at the normal distribution table, the probability corresponding to the z score is 0.9893
c) The probabilities of either jobs paying that amount is high and very close.
Answer:
a) 20%
b) 40%
c) Mean = 62.5 seconds; Variance = 52.083 seconds
Step-by-step explanation:
The time it takes a hematology cell counter to complete a test on a blood sample is continuously distributed over the period of 50 to 75 seconds with probability f(x) = 0.04.
a) The percentage of tests require more than 70 seconds is:

b)The percentage of tests that require less than one minute (60 seconds) is:

c) The mean and variance of a continuous distribution are determined by:

Mean = 62.5 seconds.
Variance = 52.083 seconds.
Answer:
A. Hypotenuse-leg (HL) congruence.
HL, when you have 2 right triangles and their hypotenuses are congruent you are able to say HL
Step-by-step explanation:
We know that the hypotenuse-leg theorem states that if the hypotenuse and one leg of a right triangle are congruent to hypotenuse and corresponding leg of another right triangle, then the triangles are congruent.
hypotenuse(AB) of △BDA equals to hypotenuse (CD) of △DBC.
BDA and DBC share a common side DB.
Using Pythagorean theorem we will get,

We have been given that CD=AB, Upon using this information we will get,

Upon subtracting
from both sides of our equation we will get,

<h3>Therefore, by HL congruence △BDA ≅ △DBC.</h3>
Answer:
Step-by-step explanation:
51,200 divided by 52. (52 weeks in a year.) 984.615385 is answer. So each week he gets paid $984.62. So then we multiply that by 3 since we are finding 40% of 3 weeks of pay. $984.62x3= $2953.86. Then we multiply that by 40%.. $2953.86x40%= Answer is $11181.54
Answer:
Step-by-step explanation:
(a) H0: μ_D=0
Ha: μ_D ≠ 0
b) Find attached the solution
(c) By technology,
p - value = 0.4437
Hence,
the p-value is 0.4437