Answer:
14.33%
Explanation:
WACC is the average cost of capital of the firm based on the weightage of the debt and weightage of the equity multiplied to their respective costs.
According to WACC formula
WACC = ( Cost of equity x Weightage of equity ) + ( Cost of debt ( 1- t) x Weightage of debt )
First Calculate the Weightage
Market Value of Shares = EBIT / cost of equity = $165,000 / 14.7% = $1,122,449
Value of Debt = $55,000
Total = $1,122,449 + $55,000 = $1,177,449
Weightage
Equity = $1,122,449 / $1,177,449 = 0.9533
Debt = 0.0467
Placing values in the WACC formula
WACC = ( 14.7% x 0.9533 ) + ( 8.6% ( 1 - 0.21 ) x 0.0467 )
WACC = 14.01% + 0.32% = 14.33%
Answer: $80
Explanation:
Opportunity cost is the benefit that is foregone for an individual by choosing one alternative over other alternatives available to him.
If the opportunity cost is lower for an individual then this will benefit him whereas if the opportunity cost is higher then this will not benefit the individuals.
The opportunity cost of writing a term paper is $80 that she values by going out with a friend and it is the higher cost alternative.
Answer:
Oriole should buy the wickets.
Explanation:
The variable cost of producing wickets is $22/unit.
The fixed cost of production is $8/unit.
The total cost of producing wickets is $30/unit.
Saran company offers to sell 4900 units of wickets at $24.
If wickets are purchased it will cost $24/unit.
Since cost is lower when buying, Oriole should buy wickets.
<span>Answer:
At what unit sales level would WCC have the same EPS, assuming it undertakes the investment and finances it with debt or with stock? {Hint: V = variable cost per unit = $8,160,000/440,000, and EPS = [(PQ - VQ - F - I)(1 - T)]/N. Set EPSStock = EPSDebt and solve for Q.} Round your answer to the nearest whole.
units
At what unit sales level would EPS = 0 under the three production/financing setups - that is, under the old plan, the new plan with debt financing, and the new plan with stock financing? (Hint: Note that VOld = $10,200,000/440,000, and use the hints for Part b, setting the EPS equation equal to zero.) Round your answers to the nearest whole.
Old plan units
New plan with debt financing units
New plan with stock financing units
On the basis of the analysis in parts a through c, and given that operating leverage is lower under the new setup, which plan is the riskiest, which has the highest expected EPS, and which would you recommend? Assume here that there is a fairly high probability of sales falling as low as 250,000 units, and determine EPSDebt and EPSStock at that sales level to help assess the riskiness of the two financing plans. Round your answers to two decimal places.
EPSDebt = $
EPSStock = $</span>