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2 years ago

Write 0.000073 in scientific notation

Mathematics

2 answers:

Llana [10]2 years ago

7 0

Answer:

7.3x10^-7

Step-by-step explanation:

you move the decimal to the right 7 times.

Hope this helps.

Andrew [12]2 years ago

7 0

Answer:

$10^-^5$ $*73$

Step-by-step explanation:

So in 0.000073, 7 is the fifth digit in the term so we can write it as $10^-^5$ * 73

or 10 to power of negative 5 multiplied by 73.

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The mean of a normally distributed group of weekly incomes of a large group of executives is $1,000 and the standard deviation i

olga_2 [115]

Answer:

The z-score (value of z) for an income of $1,100 is 1.

Step-by-step explanation:

We are given that the mean of a normally distributed group of weekly incomes of a large group of executives is $1,000 and the standard deviation is $100.

Let X = group of weekly incomes of a large group of executives

So, X ~ N( $\mu=1,000 ,\sigma^{2} = 100^{2}$ )

The z-score probability distribution for a normal distribution is given by;

Z = $\frac{X-\mu}{\sigma}$ ~ N(0,1)

where, $\mu$ = mean income = $1,000

$\sigma$ = standard deviation = $100

The Z-score measures how many standard deviations the measure is away from the mean. After finding the Z-score, we look at the z-score table and find the p-value (area) associated with this z-score. This p-value is the probability that the value of the measure is smaller than X, that is, the percentile of X.

Now, we are given an income of $1,100 for which we have to find the z-score (value of z);

So, z-score is given by = $\frac{X-\mu}{\sigma}$ = $\frac{1,100-1,000}{100}$ = 1

Hence, the z-score (value of z) for an income of $1,100 is 1.

4 0

1 year ago

The first digit in any number must be 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, or 9 because we do not write numbers such as 15 as 015. While it i

Pie

Answer:

143 i think

Step-by-step explanation:

4 0

1 year ago

The income distribution in a county is a normal distribution with a mean income of $10,000. The top 2.5% of the wage earners ear

earnstyle [38]

Answer:

84% of the wage earners earn less than $14,000 each.

Step-by-step explanation:

The Empirical Rule (68-95-99.7%)-

According to this around 95% of the data will fall within two standard deviations of the mean.

As the bell curve is symmetrical, so the remaining 5% will be divided into 2 equal parts. So 2.5% will be above 2 standard deviation and 2.5% will be below 2 standard deviation.

As it is given that, the top 2.5% of the wage earners earn $18,000 or more, so 18,000 is 2 standard deviation away from the mean 10,000.

i.e $2\sigma=18000-10000=8000$

$\Rightarrow \sigma = 4000$

We know that,

$Z=\dfrac{X-\mu}{\sigma}$

where,

X = raw score = 14,000

μ = 10,000

σ = 4,000

Putting the values,

$Z=\dfrac{14000-10000}{4000}=\dfrac{4000}{4000}=1$

Now, calculating the value from the z score table,

$P(1)=0.8413=84.13\%$

As the probability at $z=1$ is the area below that, so 84% of the wage earners earn less than $14,000 each.

6 0

2 years ago

The World Equity Index function shown contains two valuation metrics for the S&P 500. The Verizon description page contains

Nikitich [7]

Answer: Verizon is less expensive than the S&P 500 on both a P/E and dividend yield basis.

Step-by-step explanation:

When a Price to Earnings ratio is relatively high this means that the Price of the security is high because investors believe the company has good prospects.

When a Dividend Yield is relatively low, this means that the dividends being declared are quite lower than the price because Dividend yield is dividends as a percentage of security price. Lower Dividend Yields therefore mean high security prices.

Looking at the Verizon Chart and the S&P 500 you see that Verizon P/E ratio is 11.71 while S&P is 19.01.

This means that the price of Verizon's is less than S&P 500.

Also notice that Verizon's Dividend yield is 4.09% while S&P 500's is 1.91% again signifying that Verizon is cheaper.

I have attached the full question.