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Feliz [49]
1 year ago
15

For the dilation, DO, K = (10, 0) → (5, 0), the scale factor is equal to _____.

Mathematics
2 answers:
Serjik [45]1 year ago
8 0

Answer:

The scale factor is \frac{1}{2}.

Step-by-step explanation:

The dilation of a point about the origin with scale factor k is defined as

P(x,y)\rightarrow P'(kx,ky)            ..... (1)

It means the scale factor is calculated as

k=\frac{\text{x coordinate of image}}{\text{x coordinate of preimage}}

The given dilation is defined as

(10,0)\rightarrow (5,0)                ..... (2)

From (1) and (2) we get,

x coordinate of image = 5

x coordinate of preimage = 10

k=\frac{5}{10}

k=\frac{1}{2}

Therefore the scale factor is \frac{1}{2}.

eduard1 year ago
6 0
Scale factor is equal to 1/2, since the point went from 10 to 5
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1 year ago
When dividing with polynomials, the goal is to determine how many times the dividend divides evenly into the?
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When dividing polynomials, your main goal is to be able to divide the dividend evenly into the <em>divisor</em>. For example, we divide x²+2x+1 by x+1. The first thing you're going to focus is, what term will completely divide the first term of the polynomial? That would be x. Why? Because when you multiply x with x+1, the product is x²+x. When you subtract this from the polynomial, the x² will cancel out. All you have to do is subtract x from 2x, yielding x. Then, you carry down the last term of the equation: +1. You do the steps again. The term that will completely divide x+1 by x+1 is 1. When you subtract the two, you will come up with zero. That means there is no remainder. The polynomial is divisible by the divisor. 
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                         ----------------------
                                 x +1
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                             ------------
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5 0
1 year ago
Your Mutual Fund was valued at $237,500. It has lost 6% per year for the last 3 years. What is its value today?
Makovka662 [10]

Answer:

The answer is C) $197,263.70

Step-by-step explanation:

It's losing 6% PER year for the last 3 year.

You can do what I did and take $237,500 and times it 0.06. Which should give you 14,250, that is how much is lost in year one.

So subtract 14,250 from 237,500, you should have $223,250 now.

Repeat the first step with $223,250 now, you times it by 0.06 again and you should get 13,395, you subtract that from $223,250.

You have $209,855 now, once again times that by 0.06 and you get 12,591.30. Subtract 12,591.30 from 209,855 and you should end up with $197,263.70

It's a long, simple method and I'm sure there is another method of solving this question, but this is an easy way to get the answer.

5 0
1 year ago
Lin counts 5 bacteria under a microscope. She counts them again each day for four days, and finds
svetlana [45]

Answer:

Yes, but it is not linear. It is exponential :  f(x) = 5\cdot 2^{x-1}

Step-by-step explanation:

On the first day we have 5 bacteria.

On the second day we will have 5*2 = 10 bacteria.

On the third day we will have 10*2 = 5*2*2 = 5*2^2 = 20 bacteria.

On the fourth day we will have 20*2 = 5*2*2*2 = 5*2^3 = 40 bacteria.

We can see that

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where x is a number of days and f(x) gives us the number of bacteria.

4 0
1 year ago
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Lena [83]

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

Kiesha will have more than 97% of the products working.

Kiesha’s experimental probability is 1/50

When the inventory is 4000 clocks, the prediction is that 3920 clocks will work.

4 0
1 year ago
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