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vesna_86 [32]
1 year ago
5

Machinery purchased for $66,000 by Metlock Co. in 2016 was originally estimated to have a life of 8 years with a salvage value o

f $4,400 at the end of that time. Depreciation has been entered for 5 years on this basis. In 2021, it is determined that the total estimated life should be 10 years with a salvage value of $4,950 at the end of that time. Assume straight-line depreciation.
Prepare the entry to record depreciation for 2021.
Business
1 answer:
7nadin3 [17]1 year ago
6 0

Answer:

Debit : Depreciation Expense   $4,510

Credit : Accumulated Depreciation $4,510

Explanation:

Straight line method charges a fixed amount of depreciation for the period the asset is used in the business.

<em>Depreciation expense = (Cost - Residual Value) ÷ Estimated Useful life</em>

therefore

Annual Depreciation Expense = ($66,000 -  $4,400) ÷ 8

                                                  = $7,700

2016

Annual Depreciation Expense = $7,700

2017

Annual Depreciation Expense = $7,700

2018

Annual Depreciation Expense = $7,700

2019

Annual Depreciation Expense = $7,700

2020

Annual Depreciation Expense = $7,700

2021

Beginning Accumulated depreciation Balance = $38,500

<u>Calculate New Depreciable amount</u>

Depreciable amount = Cost - Accumulated depreciation - New Salvage Value

                                   = $66,000 - $38,500 - $4,950

                                   = $22,550

<u>Calculate New Useful Life</u>

5 years have already expired so the remainder out of the new 10 years is 5 years

<u>Calculate New Depreciation Expense</u>

Depreciation Expense = $22,550 ÷ 5 = $4,510

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MLB The company may build a $20M facility now to handle anticipated market demand for the next 10 years. Alternatively, the comp
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Answer:

Alternative 1 has present worth of $20,000,000.00

Alternative 2  has present worth of $18,543,040.00  

Explanation:

The present of the first alternative is the cost of the building the facility now,year zero which is $20 million.The value can be validated as follows:

Year      Cash  flows         Discount factor  present worth

                                                                      cash flow* discount factor

0            $20,00,000       1/(1+10%)^0=1            $20,000,000

The PW of the second alternative:

Year      Cash  flows         Discount factor            present worth

                                                                              cash flow* discount factor

0            $10,000,000       1/(1+10%)^0=1                      $10,000,000

4             $8,000,000        1/(1+10%)^4=0.68301           $5,464,080

7             $6,000,000         1/(1+10%)^7=0.51316            $3,078,960

Present worth of second alternative                            $ 18,543,040

Hence alternative with PW is better as it has lower present worth of $ 18,543,040.00  

5 0
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