Answer:
zero (0)
Step-by-step explanation:
probability of being hemophiliac and daughter is zero because females have 50% chance of being carrier.
where as males have 50% chance of being affected with hemophilia.
example for understanding: if after mating a girl have X chromosomes with hemophilia gene than she might have hemophilia but that is in rear case so probability is zero.
hope you understand my answer, thank you.
Answer:
a) the sample size (n) = 156.25≅ 156
Step-by-step explanation:
<u>Step1 </u>:-
Given the two sample sizes are equal so 
Given the standard error (S.E) = 0.04
The standard error of the proportion of the given sample size

Step 2:-
here we assume that the proportion of boys and girls are equally likely
p= 1/2 and q= 1/2


squaring on both sides, we get

on simplification, we get
n= 156.25 ≅ 156
sample size (n) = 156
<u>verification</u>:-
Standard error = 0.04
The domain is the x values
y = 2 - x
when x = -3
y = 2 - (-3)
y = 2 + 3
y = 5....so ur points are (-3,5)
when x = -2
y = 2 - (-2)
y = 2 + 2
y = 4....so ur points are (-2,4)
when x = -1
y = 2 - (-1)
y = 2 + 1
y = 3...so ur points are (-1,3)
when x = 0
y = 2 - 0
y = 2....so ur points are (0,2)
when x = 1
y = 2 - 1
y = 1...so ur point are (1,1)
so basically, u plot all of those points