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Pepsi [2]
1 year ago
9

Ali wants to buy a piano. The piano measures 19/4 ft long. She has a space 5ft long for the piano in her house. Does she have en

ough room?
Mathematics
2 answers:
KATRIN_1 [288]1 year ago
6 0
19/4 = 4 3/4 ft which is less than 5ft
Yes she has room
kvasek [131]1 year ago
3 0
First, think about what you know.

The problem is giving you feet for both of the numbers, which is good for you on your part considering you have no measurements to convert.

You also know that you have 5 feet of space in your house to possibly hold a piano. If a piano is larger than five feet, you won't have enough room.

You also know that you can find out if a number is bigger by getting the number out of improper fraction form.

So, to solve this problem, remove the improper fraction. Change 19/4 into 4 3/4, instead. If unsure how to get out of improper fraction format, simply see how many times you can get four into 19. That would be your whole number. Then, let the left over number go over your original denominator. 

Four goes into nineteen 4 times. 4 x 4 is 16 and the leftover amount until 19 would be 3. ( 19 - 16 ) So, place 3/4 and you have 4 and 3/4.

- you could also turn into a decimal to solve instead -

Now, you realize that the piano is 4 3/4 ft long and you have 5 feet of space. The piano is smaller than your house space, and therefore, Ali does have enough room. 
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A player of a video game is confronted with a series of four opponents and an 80% probability of defeating each opponent. Assume
mixer [17]

Answer:

(a) 0.4096

(b) 0.64

(c) 0.7942

Step-by-step explanation:

The probability that the player wins is,

P(W)=0.80

Then the probability that the player losses is,

P(L)=1-P(W)=1-0.80=0.20

The player is playing the video game with 4 different opponents.

It is provided that when the player is defeated by an opponent the game ends.

All the possible ways the player can win is: {L, WL, WWL, WWWL and WWWW)

(a)

The results from all the 4 opponents are independent, i.e. the result of a game played with one opponent is unaffected by the result of the game played with another opponent.

The probability that the player defeats all four opponents in a game is,

P (Player defeats all 4 opponents) = P(W)\times P(W)\times P(W)\times P(W)=[P(W)]^{4} =(0.80)^{4}=0.4096

Thus, the probability that the player defeats all four opponents in a game is 0.4096.

(b)

The probability that the player defeats at least two opponents in a game is,

P (Player defeats at least 2) = 1 - P (Player losses the 1st game) - P (Player losses the 2nd game) = 1-P(L)-P(WL)

                                    =1-(0.20)-(0.80\times0.20)\\=1-0.20-0.16\\=0.64

Thus, the probability that the player defeats at least two opponents in a game is 0.64.

(c)

Let <em>X</em> = number of times the player defeats all 4 opponents.

The probability that the player defeats all four opponents in a game is,

P(WWWW) = 0.4096.

Then the random variable X\sim Bin(n=3, p=0.4096)

The probability distribution of binomial is:

P(X=x)={n\choose x}p^{x} (1-p)^{n-x}

The probability that the player defeats all the 4 opponents at least once is,

P (<em>X</em> ≥ 1) = 1 - P (<em>X</em> < 1)

             = 1 - P (<em>X</em> = 0)

             =1-[{3\choose 0}(0.4096)^{0} (1-0.4096)^{3-0}]\\=1-[1\times1\times (0.5904)^{3}\\=1-0.2058\\=0.7942

Thus, the probability that the player defeats all the 4 opponents at least once is 0.7942.

3 0
1 year ago
Triangle PQR has coordinates P (2, 4), Q (-2, 4), R (0,-6).
alexdok [17]

Answer: P’ (5,10) , Q’ (-5,10) , R’ ( 0,-15)

Step-by-step explanation:

Just multiply 2.5 by the x,y

4 0
1 year ago
Read 2 more answers
Need help asap. Consider the diagram.
fgiga [73]

ANSWER

<em>alternate interior angles theorem</em>

EXPLANATION

According to the alternate interior angles theorem, when two parallel lines are are intercepted by a straight line (transversal) the angles in the interior corners of a Z-shape pattern are congruent.

From the above diagram line r is parallel to line s, therefore

\angle \: 3 \cong \angle6

and

\angle \: 4\cong \angle5

because they are alternate interior angles.

See attachment for how to spot alternate interior angles.

5 0
1 year ago
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If a diameter of a circle with a circumference of 104.48 mm is reduced by 1/2,what is the circumference of the new circle?
klio [65]
All we need to do here is divide the circumference by 2.

104.48 / 2 = 52.24

The new circumference is 52.24 mm.
4 0
2 years ago
A pilot was scheduled to depart at 4:00 pm, but due to air traffic, her departure has been delayed by 10 minutes. Air traffic co
alexandr402 [8]

Answer:

a. y equals one third times x plus 10

= y = 1/3(x) + 10

Step-by-step explanation:

Let us represent:

Let the original final plan = x

Let the current flight plan = y

The initial time of departure = 4.00pm

Her flight was then delayed for 10 minutes

We are told in the question that:

The current flight plan allows her arrive at her destination three times faster.

This means y= (1/3)x

y = x/3

Hence the equation generated =

y = x/3 +10

y = 1/3(x) + 10

4 0
1 year ago
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