We are given here that a blackjack hand consists of:
1 of the 4 aces = 4 / 52
1 of the 16 cards worth 10 points (10, jack, queen, king)
= 16 / 52
So assuming that cards are dealt without replacement,
therefore the probability of getting a blackjack hand is:
<span>P = 1st is ace * 2nd is 10 pt card +
1st is 10 pt card * 2nd is ace</span>
P = (4 / 52) * (16 / 51) + (16 / 52) * (4 / 51)
P = 0.04827 = 4.83%
Therefore there is a 4.83% probability to get a blackjack
hand.
<span> </span>
Answer:42%
Step-by-step explanation:
The answer is B.
This is because since f + e = c,
then a² + b² = c(f + e)
a² + b² = c(c)
a² + b² = c²
This is the correct answer