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Free_Kalibri [48]
1 year ago
10

At the bank, Brent exchanges $50 in bills for 50 one-dollar coins. The total mass of the coins is 405 grams. ESTIMATE the mass o

f 1 one-dollar coin
Mathematics
2 answers:
Ksivusya [100]1 year ago
5 0

Hello!

At the bank, Brent exchanges $50 in bills for 50 one-dollar coins. The total mass of the coins is 405 grams. ESTIMATE the mass of 1 one-dollar coin

Data:  

$50 dollars in bills → 50 coins of one dollar  

Estimate the mass of one dollar coin

Solving:  

50 coins → 405 grams

1 coin → y

\dfrac{50}{1} = \dfrac{405}{y}

The rule of three

50*y = 405*1

50\:y = 405

y = \dfrac{405}{50}

\boxed{\boxed{y = 8.1}}\end{array}}

Answer:

\boxed{\boxed{\boxed{x \approx 8\:grams/coin}}}\qquad\checkmark

_____________________________

I Hope this helps, greetings ... Dexteright02! =)

Anarel [89]1 year ago
4 0
To find the answer, you should divide 405 by 50 to find the mass of one coin. The formula should look like this:
\frac{405}{50}
= 8.1
The exact mass is 8.1 grams, but because you want an estimate, the answer should be
About 8 grams for the mass of 1 one-dollar coin
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Answer:

180^\circ C

Step-by-step explanation:

To convert from degree Fahrenheit to Celsius, we use the formula:

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If Habib's recipe is to be baked at 356 degree Fahrenheit, then we substitute F=356 to obtain an equivalent value in degree Celsius.

\text{Temperature in }^\circ C=\dfrac{5^\circ F-160}{9}\\=\dfrac{5*356-160}{9}\\=\dfrac{1780-160}{9}\\=\dfrac{1620}{9}\\\text{Temperature in }^\circ C=180^\circ C

Habib should bake his scones at 180^\circ C.

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What is the value of the expression i 0 × i 1 × i 2 × i 3 × i 4?
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ANSWER


The value of the expression is
- 1


EXPLANATION

Method 1: Rewrite as product of
{i}^{2}


The expression given to us is,

{i}^{0}  \times {i}^{1}  \times {i}^{2}  \times {i}^{3}  \times {i}^{4}


We use the fact that
{i}^{2}  =  - 1
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{i}^{0}  \times {i}^{1}  \times {i}^{2}  \times {i}^{3}  \times {i}^{4}  =  {i}^{0}  \times {i}^{1}  \times {i}^{3}   \times {i}^{2}   \times {i}^{4}


This implies,


{i}^{0}  \times {i}^{1}  \times {i}^{2}  \times {i}^{3}  \times {i}^{4}  =  {i}^{0}  \times {i}^{2}  \times {i}^{2}   \times {i}^{2}   \times {i}^{2} \times {i}^{2}


We substitute to obtain,

{i}^{0}  \times {i}^{1}  \times {i}^{2}  \times {i}^{3}  \times {i}^{4}  =  1\times  - 1 \times  - 1  \times  - 1\times  - 1 \times  - 1


{i}^{0}  \times {i}^{1}  \times {i}^{2}  \times {i}^{3}  \times {i}^{4}  =  1\times  1 \times   1  \times  - 1 =  - 1


Method 2: Use indices to solve.



{i}^{0}  \times {i}^{1}  \times {i}^{2}  \times {i}^{3}  \times {i}^{4}  = {i}^{0 + 1 + 2 + 3 + 4}



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{i}^{0}  \times {i}^{1}  \times {i}^{2}  \times {i}^{3}  \times {i}^{4}  = {i}^{10}




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f(x)=\frac{9x^{2}+9x-18}{3x+6}

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Step 1

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Group terms that contain the same variable, and move the constant to the opposite side of the equation

x^{2}+x=2

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The domain of the function f(x) is all real numbers except the number x=-2

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the answer in the attached figure

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