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Mumz [18]
2 years ago
11

Consider the diagram and the paragraph proof below. Given: Right △ABC as shown where CD is an altitude of the triangle Prove: a2

+ b2 = c2 Because △ABC and △CBD both have a right angle, and the same angle B is in both triangles, the triangles must be similar by AA. Likewise, △ABC and △ACD both have a right angle, and the same angle A is in both triangles, so they also must be similar by AA. The proportions and are true because they are ratios of corresponding parts of similar triangles. The two proportions can be rewritten as a2 = cf and b2 = ce. Adding b2 to both sides of first equation, a2 = cf, results in the equation a2 + b2 = cf + b2. Because b2 and ce are equal, ce can be substituted into the right side of the equation for b2, resulting in the equation a2 + b2 = cf + ce. Applying the converse of the distributive property results in the equation a2 + b2 = c(f + e).

Mathematics
2 answers:
dolphi86 [110]2 years ago
7 0

Answer:

Because f+e=c

Therefore ,a^2+b^2=c^2

Step-by-step explanation:

Given A right triangle ABC as shown in figure  where CD is an altitude of the triangle.

To prove that a^2+b^2=c^2

Proofe: Given \triangle ABC\; and\; \triangle CBD both are right triangle and both triangles have common angle B si same.

Therefore , two angles of two triangles are equal .

Hence, \triangle ABC \sim\triangle CBD by using AA similarity.

<h3>Similarity property: when two triangles are similar then their corresponding angles are equal and their corresponding side are in equal proportion.</h3><h3>\frac{a}{f} =\frac{c}{a}</h3>

Similarly , \triangle ABC \sim \triangle ACD by AA similarity property . Because both triangles are right triangles therefore, one angle of both triangles is equal to 90 degree and both triangles have one common angle A is same .

\therefore \frac{b}{c} =\frac{e}{b}

The corresponding parts of two similar triangles are in equal proportion  therefore , two proportion can be rewrite as

a^2=cf (I equation)

and  b^2=ce (II equation)

Adding b^2 to  both sides of firs equation

a^2+b^2=cf+b^2

Because b^2=ce and ce can be substituted into the right side of equation wevcan write as

a^2+b^2=ce+cf

Applying the converse of distributive property we can write

a^2+b^2=c(f+e)

Distributive property: a.(b+c)= a.c+a.b

a^2+b^2=c^2

Because f+e=c^2

Hence proved.

gladu [14]2 years ago
5 0
The answer is B.

This is because since f + e = c,
then a² + b² = c(f + e)
a² + b² = c(c)
a² + b² = c²

This is the correct answer 
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Answer:

42

Step-by-step explanation:

The permutation formula is P(n, r) = n! / (n - r)!. We know that n = 7 and r = 2 so we can write:

7! / (7 - 2)!

= 7! / 5!

= 7 * 6 * 5 * 4 * 3 * 2 * 1 / 5 * 4 * 3 * 2 * 1

= 7 * 6 (5 * 4 * 3 * 2 * 1 cancels out)

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8 0
2 years ago
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Question and answer choices are in the screenshot. THANK YOU!!
Anika [276]
I 11 x - 22 I > 22
∴ 11x-22 > 22          OR          (11x -22) < -22
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5 0
2 years ago
louise bought 80 metres of fencing to make an enclosure for her pet dog .tommy if louise expects a rectangular enclosure what is
OleMash [197]

Answer:

400 m^2.

Step-by-step explanation:

The largest  area is obtained where the enclosure is a square.

I think that's the right answer because a square is a special form of a rectangle.

So the square would be 20 * 20  = 400 m^2.

Proof:

Let the  sides of the rectangle be x and y m long

The area A = xy.

Also the perimeter  2x + 2y = 80

x + y = 40

y = 40 - x.

So substituting for y in A = xy:-

A = x(40 - x)

A = 40x - x^2

For maximum value of A  we find the derivative and equate it to 0:

derivative A' =  40 - 2x = 0

2x = 40

x = 20.

So y = 40 - x

= 40 - 20

=20  

x and y are the same value so x = y.

Therefore for maximum area the rectangle is a square.

3 0
2 years ago
A certain company's main source is a mobile app. The function h models the company's annual profit (in million of dollars) as a
cricket20 [7]

Answer:

At price 3 and 11, the profit will be $0

Step-by-step explanation:

I think your question is missed of key information, allow me to add in and hope it will fit the original one.  

<em> A certain companies main source of income is a mobile app. The companies annual profit (in millions of dollars) as a function of the app’s price (in dollars) is modeled by P(x)=-2(x-3)(x-11) which app prices will result in $0 annual profit?</em>

My answer:

Given:

  • x is the app price
  • P(x) is the profit earned

If we want to find out the app price that will result in $0 annual profit? It means we need to set the function:

P(x)=-2(x-3)(x-11) = 0

<=> (x-3)(x-11)= 0

<=> x - 3 = 0 or x - 11=0

<=> x = 3 or x = 11

So at price 3 and 11, the profit will be $0

Hope it will find you well.

5 0
2 years ago
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