All categories

3 years ago

MAJOR HELP NEEDED!

Mathematics

2 answers:

azamat3 years ago

7 0

Wore tie got compliment: 25
wore tie no compliment: 9
no tie or compliment: 11
no tie got compliment: 5
I believe these are all correct

Shtirlitz [24]3 years ago

6 0

<h2>Answer with explanation:</h2>

We know that a two-way frequency table is constructed when we have to deal with two variables ( which is also known as a bivariate data)

Here we have two variables as wore a tie or not and the second variable is: Received compliment or not.

Hence, on the basis of the information provided to us in the question we see that the two-way frequency table is obtained as follows:

Wore tie Do not wore tie Total

Receive compliment 25 5 30

Do not receive compliment 9 11 20

Total 34 16 50

You might be interested in

A hair stylist knows that 87% of her customers get a haircut and 40% get their hair colored on a regular basis. Of the customers

cluponka [151]

Answer:

6/25 or 24%

Step-by-step explanation:

I mean, it says it in the question.

8 0

2 years ago

Read 2 more answers

You have a need to purchase 30 units of a product and have them delivered to your company in five days. The sale price is $35 ea

tino4ka555 [31]

Answer: $1411.50

Step-by-step explanation:

Since the sale price is $35 each and there are 30 units, the cost will be:

= $35 × 30

= $1050

We then add the sales tax on the product which is 8%. This will be:

= $1050 + (8% × $1050)

= $1050 + (0.08 × $1050)

= $1050 + $84

= $1134

We then add Shipping price which is $15. This will be:

= $1134 + $15

= $1149

We then add the 25% rush charge on the sales price. This will be:

= $1050 × 25%

= $1050 × 0.25

= $262.50

To get total cost, this will be:

= $1149 + $262.50

= $1411.50

5 0

2 years ago

Read 2 more answers

PLEASE HELP 30 PTS!!

Troyanec [42]

I hope this helps you

7 0

2 years ago

Read 2 more answers

The following exercise refers to choosing two cards from a thoroughly shuffled deck. Assume that the deck is shuffled after a ca

dem82 [27]

Answer:

$\frac{4}{663}$

Step-by-step explanation:

Given that from a well shuffled set of playing cards (52 in number) a card is drawn and without replacing it, next card is drawn.

A - the first card is 4

B - second card is ace

We have to find probability for

$A\bigcap B$

P(A) = no of 4s in the deck/total cards = $\frac{4}{52} =\frac{1}{13}$

After this first drawn if 4 is drawn, we have remaining 51 cards with 4 aces in it

P(B) = no of Aces in 51 cards/51 = $\frac{4}{51}$

Hence

$P(A\bigcap B) = \frac{1}{13} *\frac{4}{51} \\=\frac{4}{663}$

(Here we see that A and B are independent once we adjust the number of cards. Also for both we multiply the probabilities)

8 0

2 years ago

Read 2 more answers

Lionel needs money quite frequently and doesn't need much interest at all. Which of these options for saving money is best for h

mestny [16]

Answer: Savings account - Apex

4 0

2 years ago

Read 2 more answers