A recipe calls for 1 part beans to 1½ parts rice. if 1½ parts of beans are used, how much rice should be used?

1 answer:

riadik2000 [5.3K]2 years ago

8 0

$1 \text{ part beans} \longrightarrow 1\dfrac{1}{2} \text{ parts rice}$

$1 \dfrac{1}{2} \text{ part beans} \longrightarrow 1\dfrac{1}{2} \times 1 \dfrac{1}{2} \text{ parts rice}$

$1 \dfrac{1}{2} \text{ part beans} \longrightarrow \dfrac{3}{2} \times \dfrac{3}{2} \text{ parts rice}$

$1 \dfrac{1}{2} \text{ part beans} \longrightarrow \dfrac{9}{4} \text{ parts rice}$

$1 \dfrac{1}{2} \text{ part beans} \longrightarrow 2\dfrac{1}{4} \text{ parts rice}$

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