160 in 1¢ steps means 16,000 bids
so you invest $1 with a 1/16000 probability<span> of a $2000 return
the expected value (in dollars) is ___ -1 + [(1/16000) * 2000)]
this is why auction websites exist
THIS MEANS
</span>it is a 1/16,000 chance of earning<span> 1,999 while there is a 15,999 chance of losing a dollar so find 1/16000 which is 0.0000625 so do 1-0.0000625=.9999375 so .9999375*-1=-.9999375+(1999*.0000625=.1249375+-.9999375=0.875 </span>
1/2 first day
last day is 1 and 1/4
1/2=2/4
1 and 1/4=5/4
2/4+how many 1/4=5/4
answer is 3 of them
add 1 moe for the firs tday
3+1=4
4 days
The right answer for the question that is being asked and shown above is that:
x = k (1/y)
k = xy
x1y1 = x2y2
8*10 = 6y2
80 = 6y2
y2 = 40/3
So the answer is 40/3
<span>X varies inversely with y and x = 8 when y = 10, what is the value of y when x=6</span>
