:)
The formula of the future value of annuity ordinary is
Fv=pmt [(1+r/k)^(kn)-1)÷(r/n)]
So we need to solve for pmt
Pmt=fv÷[(1+r/k)^(kn)-1)÷(r/n)]
Pmt=200,000÷(((1+0.10÷4)^(4×5)
−1)÷(0.10÷4))=7,829.43...answer
Hope it helps
The solution is <span>B. π/12+nπ
</span>proof
sinx cosx = 1/4 is equivalent to 2 <span>sinx cosx = 1/2 or sin2x =1/2
so 2x = arcsin(1/2) = </span>π/6 + 2nπ, so x = π/12+nπ
Omari (3 1/2)___________(0)school____________(3 1/4)daisy
3 1/2 + 3 1/4 = 6 + (1/2 + 1/4) = 6 + (2/4 + 1/4) = 6 3/4 blocks apart <==
Answer:
(B)93
Explanation:
Since we are using a fixed-order-interval model,
The Amount to Order=Expected Demand During protection Interval+Safety Stock-Amount at Hand
Where:
d=weekly demand
OI=Order Interval
LT=Lead Time
z=Standard Deviation of Desired Service Level
=Standard Deviation of weekly Demand
A= Amount at Hand
Answer:
50%
Step-by-step explanation:
the will have 75minis 25