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nikklg [1K]
2 years ago
6

Solve the problems. Write the complete proof in your paper homework and for online (only) complete the probing statement (if any

) that is a part of your proof or related to it.
Given: Quadrilateral AMNO
MN║AO
AM║ON
Prove: ∆AMN ≅ ∆NOA

Mathematics
1 answer:
vesna_86 [32]2 years ago
8 0

Answer:

∆AMN ≅ ∆NOA

Step-by-step explanation:

Given:

Quadrilateral AMNO

MN║AO

AM║ON

To prove:∆AMN ≅ ∆NOA

Lets first draw two diagonals represented by lines MO and AN inside the given quadrilateral AMNO

Now we know if lines are parallel then the alternate interior angles are congruent , hence

∠NMO≅∠AOM

∠MNA≅∠NAO

∠AMO≅∠NOM

∠MAN≅∠ANO

Also by Reflexive Property we have

NA≅NA

MO≅MO

From ASA congruence property of triangles that states that if two angles and a side of two triangles are congruent then the two triangle are said to be congruent, hence we have

ΔAMN≅ΔNOA

ΔMAO≅ΔONM  !

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The CEO of Millennium Dairy Product, a small venture among 10 partners each having 100,000 shares, sought to raise an additional
klemol [59]

Answer:

Millennium Dairy Product

a) Share of the company that SBI Caps should require today to get a required rate of return of 50%.

= 50%

b) If the company had 1,000,000 (100,000 x10) shares outstanding before the private placement, SBI Caps should purchase

1,000,000 shares = 50% of (1,000,000 + 1,000,000) shares

Assuming the founding promoters are not giving up their shares, instead, new equity shares are being issued.

c) The price per share SBI Caps should agree to pay, if her required return was 50% is

Rs.50 per share, which will provide the required additional equity financing of (Rs.50 million) since Rs.50 x 1,000,000 equals Rs.50 million.

d) Pre money and post money valuations:

These are based on the calculated Market Price of Rs.1,000 per share from the Price/Earnings Ratio.

Pre money valuation will be Rs.1,000 x 1,000,000 shares = Rs.1 billion

Post money valuation will be Rs.1,000 x 2,000,000 shares = Rs.2 billion

e) Carried interests of the VC and the promoters

VC's carried interest = share of profits = 50% xRs.50 million = Rs.25 million

Promoters' carried interest = Rs.25 million

Step-by-step explanation:

a) Calculation of share in the company:

SBI Cap's required rate of return is 50%

If she invests Rs.50 million today, her expected return will be equal to Rs.50 million x 50% = Rs.25 million

Since rate of return = Net Income/Initial Investment or (Current value of investment - Initial Investment)/Initial Investment.

This return will be equal to 50% of the total net income of Rs.50 million

b) Price/Earnings P/E ratio = Market price per share/Earnings per share (EPS)

Since P/E ratio of similar companies = 20 times,

The company's P/E = 20 times x EPS

With calculated EPS = Rs.50 million /1,000,000 = Rs.50

Therefore, price per share = 20 x Rs.50 = Rs.1,000

Pre money valuation = Rs.1,000 x 1 million shares = Rs.1 billion

Post money valuation = Rs.1,000 x 2 million shares = Rs.2 billion

c) The carried interest is the share of profits to which the promoters and the Venture Capitalists are entitled.  Their respective shares are 50% of the net income = Rs.25 million each.

d) The pre money and post money valuations:  The pre money valuation is the valuation of the company before the additional equity financing.  The post money valuation is the valuation of the company after the additional equity financing.  There are many ways to value a company.  In this case, we have used the P/E ratio as a basis for the valuation.  However, we did not dilute the earnings per share post money, for simplicity.

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2 years ago
Write a two step equation involving division and addition that has a solution of x = 25
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Start with the solution
x=-25
use the reverse of what they asked
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we use multiplication and subtract

ok
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multiply both sides by 4
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2 years ago
During the summer, Gavin tutors and Eva washes cars.To show their earnings, Gavin makes a graph and Eva makes a table. Who earns
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To find Eva's slope divide 23 by 2.

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Hope this helps :)
6 0
2 years ago
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A city distributes vehicle identification stickers using a combination of letters followed by a combination of​ digits, each of
gayaneshka [121]
A) 672750
B) 68250
C) 2960100

Explanation
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B) We have 26 letters from which to choose 2, and 10 digits from which to choose 4:
_{26}C_2\times_{10}C_4=\frac{26!}{2!24!}\times\frac{10!}{4!6!}=325\times210=68250

C) We have 26 letters from which to choose 5, and 10 digits from which to choose 2:
_{26}C_5\times_{10}C_2=\frac{26!}{5!21!}\times\frac{10!}{2!8!}=65780\times45=2960100
5 0
2 years ago
What is the domain of validity for csctheta =start fraction 1 over sine theta end fraction? (1 point) all real numbers all real
dem82 [27]
We know the following relationship:

csc(\theta)=\frac{1}{sin(\theta)}

The domain of a function are the inputs of the function, that is, a function f is a relation that assigns to each element x in the set A exactly one element in the set B. The set A is the domain (or set of inputs) of the function and the set B contains the range (or set of outputs).Then applying this concept to our function csc(\theta) we can write its domain as follows:

1. D<span>omain of validity for csc(\theta):
</span>
D: \{\theta \in R/ sin(\theta) \neq 0 \} \\ In words: All \ \theta \ that \ are \ real \ values \ except \ those \ that \ makes \ sin(\theta)=0 
 
When:

sin(\theta)=0?

when:

\theta=..., -2\pi,-\pi,0,\pi,\2pi,3pi,...,k\pi

where k is an integer either positive or negative. That is:

sin(k\theta)=0 \ for \ k=...,-2,-1,0,1,2,3,...

To match this with the choices above, the answer is:

<span>"All real numbers except multiples of \pi"

</span>
2. which identity is not used in the proof of the identity 1+cot^{2}(\theta)=csc^{2}(\theta):

This identity can proved as follows:

sin^2{\theta}+cos^{2}(\theta)=1 \ Dividing \ by \ sin^{2}(\theta) \\ \\ \therefore \frac{sin^2{\theta}}{sin^{2}(\theta)}+\frac{cos^{2}(\theta)}{sin^{2}(\theta)}=\frac{1}{sin^{2}(\theta)} \\ \\ \therefore 1+cot^{2}(\theta)=csc^{2}(\theta)

The identity that is not used is as established in the statement above:

<span>"1 +cos squared theta over sin squared theta= csc2theta"

Written in mathematical language as follows:

</span>\frac{1+cos^{2}(\theta)}{sin^{2}(\theta)}=csc^{2}(\theta)<span>


</span>
4 0
2 years ago
Read 2 more answers
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