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1 year ago

a simplified alternative to capitalization of net income that does not take into account bad debts or expenses is called?

Business

1 answer:

mestny [16]1 year ago

6 0

<u>Answer:</u>

The correct answer for this is: Gross Rent Multiplier.

<u>Explanation:</u>

The type of a simplified alternative to capitalization of net income that does not take into account bad debts or expenses is called Gross Rent Multiplier (GMR).

Gross Rent Multiplier is used to find the approximate net incomes that does not include any bad debts or expenses.

Also, it is considered as the quickest tool to estimate the values, such as of a building.

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Victor works for a company that highly values performance-oriented traits, such as achieving a certain level of sales and increa

Katen [24]

Answer:

e. masculinity/femininity

Explanation:

This refers to the allocation of positions between males and females. Within patriarchal cultures, the responsibilities of females and males differ very little and men are supposed to act forthrightly. Showing your performance, being quick and strong, is seen as a good attribute.In this aspect, masculinity is described as "a social preference for success, bravery, confidence, and material benefit for achievement." Its counterpart stands for "inclination to collaboration, chastity, care for the vulnerable and living standards."

8 0

2 years ago

Teall Corporation has a standard cost system in which it applies manufacturing overhead to products on the basis of standard mac

erastova [34]

Answer:

$4,500 U

Explanation:

Teall Corporation

Budget variance = Actual fixed overhead cost − Budgeted fixed overhead cost

Actual total fixed manufacturing overhead $ 59,500

Less Budgeted fixed manufacturing overhead cost $ 55,000

Fixed manufacturing overhead budget variance for the month $4,500 U

Therefore the fixed manufacturing overhead budget variance for the month is $4,500 U

4 0

2 years ago

Suppose a manufacturing plant is considering three options for expansion. The first one is to expand into a new plant (large), t

sp2606 [1]

Answer:

a. $50,000

b. $77,500

c. $27,500

d. Large expansion or plant

Explanation:

a. What is the highest Expected Monetary Value (EMV)?

1. EMV of Large expansion = ($100000×0.50) + ($10000×0.25) + (-$10000×0.25)

EMV of Large expansion =

2. EMV of Medium expansion = ($40000×0.50) + ($40000×0.25) + ($5000×0.25)

EMV of Medium expansion = $31,250

3. EMV of Small expansion = ($15000×0.50) + ($15000×0.25) + ($15000×0.25)

EMV of Small expansion = $15,000

The highest EMV is $50,000 which is the EMV of Large expansion.

b. What is Expected Value with Perfect Information (EVwPI)?

EVwPI is obtained by adding together the expected value of the highest profit from each of the expansions as follows:

EVwPI = ($100000×0.50) + ($40000×0.50) + ($15000×0.50)

EVwPI = $77,500

c. What is the organization willing to pay for perfect information?

This requires the calculation of Expected Value of Perfect Information (EVPI). This can be obtained as follows:

EVPI = EVwPI - EVwoPI

Where EVwoPI denotes Expected Value without Perfect Information and it is is the highest EMV of $50,000 which is the EMV of Large expansion obtained in a above.

Substituting the figures, we have:

EVPI = $77,500 - $50,000 = $27,500

d. Which of the expansion plans should the manager choose?

The manager should choose the large expansion because it has the highest or maximum EMV of $50,000.

4 0

1 year ago

Read 2 more answers

Feldspar Inc. is considering the capital structure for a new division. Management has been given the following cost information:

34kurt

Answer:

Option 4

Explanation:

In this question ,we have to compute the WACC which is shown below:

= Weightage of debt × cost of debt × ( 1- tax rate) + (Weightage of common stock) × (cost of common stock)

For Option 1, it would be

= (0.3 × 10%) × ( 1 - 40%) + (0.7 × 12.5%)

= 1.8% + 8.75%

= 10.55%

For Option 2, it would be

= (0.4 × 10.5%) × ( 1 - 40%) + (0.6 × 13%)

= 2.52% + 7.8%

= 10.32%

For Option 3, it would be

= (0.5 × 11%) × ( 1 - 40%) + (0.5 × 13.5%)

= 3.3% + 6.75%

= 10.05%

For Option 4, it would be

= (0.6 × 11.7%) × ( 1 - 40%) + (0.4 × 14.2%)

= 4.212% + 5.68%

= 9.89%

For Option 5, it would be

= (0.7 × 13%) × ( 1 - 40%) + (0.3 × 15.5%)

= 5.46% + 4.65%

= 10.11%

So based on this, the management should accept option 4 as it derives the best debt asset ratio

The weightage of equity would be come

= 1 - weightage of debt

8 0

2 years ago

Mulligan Manufacturing Company uses a job order cost system with overhead applied to products at a rate of 150 percent of direct

7nadin3 [17]

Answer:

a) 25000 labor x 150% rate =37,500 overhead

b) total manufacturing cost:

12,000 +25,000 + 37,500 = 74,500

d) labor = overhead / 1.5 = 18000 / 1.5 = 12,000

c) total less labor les maufacturing = materials

45,000 - 18,000 - 12,000 = 15,000

e) to solve for labor we express overhead in function of labor:

materials + labor + 1.5labor = total manufacturing

15,000 + 2.5 labor = 35,000

labor = (35,000 - 15,000) / 2.5 = 8000

f) overhead: 8,000 x 1.5 = 12,000

Table to fill:

Direct Material used

12,000 // c // 15,000

Direct labor

25,000 // d // e

Manufacturing overhead applied

a // 18,000 // f

Total current manufacturing costs

b // 45,000 // 35,000

Explanation:

4 0

2 years ago