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Lyrx [107]
2 years ago
12

If point C is inside AvB, then __+m CvB= m AvB

Mathematics
2 answers:
kati45 [8]2 years ago
7 0

Answer:answer is actually C

adelina 88 [10]2 years ago
3 0

Answer: OPTION A

Step-by-step explanation:

It is important to remember the "Angle Addition Postulate" in order to solve this exercise.

You have this larger angle:

 \angle AVB

According to the "Angle Addition Postulate", if the point "C"  is in the interior of \angle AVB, then the measure of this angle can be obtained by adding the angle \angle AVC and the angle \angle CVB.

You can observe in the figure that:

 m\angle AVC=39\°\\\\\mangle CVB=23\°

Then you get that:

m\angle AVC+m\angle CVB=m\angle AVB\\\\39\°+23\°=62\°

Therefore, the correct answer is Option A.

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A player of a video game is confronted with a series of four opponents and an 80% probability of defeating each opponent. Assume
mixer [17]

Answer:

(a) 0.4096

(b) 0.64

(c) 0.7942

Step-by-step explanation:

The probability that the player wins is,

P(W)=0.80

Then the probability that the player losses is,

P(L)=1-P(W)=1-0.80=0.20

The player is playing the video game with 4 different opponents.

It is provided that when the player is defeated by an opponent the game ends.

All the possible ways the player can win is: {L, WL, WWL, WWWL and WWWW)

(a)

The results from all the 4 opponents are independent, i.e. the result of a game played with one opponent is unaffected by the result of the game played with another opponent.

The probability that the player defeats all four opponents in a game is,

P (Player defeats all 4 opponents) = P(W)\times P(W)\times P(W)\times P(W)=[P(W)]^{4} =(0.80)^{4}=0.4096

Thus, the probability that the player defeats all four opponents in a game is 0.4096.

(b)

The probability that the player defeats at least two opponents in a game is,

P (Player defeats at least 2) = 1 - P (Player losses the 1st game) - P (Player losses the 2nd game) = 1-P(L)-P(WL)

                                    =1-(0.20)-(0.80\times0.20)\\=1-0.20-0.16\\=0.64

Thus, the probability that the player defeats at least two opponents in a game is 0.64.

(c)

Let <em>X</em> = number of times the player defeats all 4 opponents.

The probability that the player defeats all four opponents in a game is,

P(WWWW) = 0.4096.

Then the random variable X\sim Bin(n=3, p=0.4096)

The probability distribution of binomial is:

P(X=x)={n\choose x}p^{x} (1-p)^{n-x}

The probability that the player defeats all the 4 opponents at least once is,

P (<em>X</em> ≥ 1) = 1 - P (<em>X</em> < 1)

             = 1 - P (<em>X</em> = 0)

             =1-[{3\choose 0}(0.4096)^{0} (1-0.4096)^{3-0}]\\=1-[1\times1\times (0.5904)^{3}\\=1-0.2058\\=0.7942

Thus, the probability that the player defeats all the 4 opponents at least once is 0.7942.

3 0
2 years ago
Slater begins saving for college tuition. He invests $1000 in an account that pays 2.5% simple interest. How many years before h
Brrunno [24]
The formula is Interest = principle times rate times time in years.
                        I=prt        

p=1000
r= 0.025
t=x

To find the amount of interest that is earned in a specific time frame, subtract the final amount of money by the principal. 1500-1000=500.

500 = 1000(0.025)x
500 = 25x   
x= 20 years
 
6 0
2 years ago
Kourtney and Kayla are sisters who are taking the same classes this semester: MAT 003, CHM 131/3131A, and ACA 122. if kourtney e
qaws [65]

Answer: A.3.5

Step-by-step explanation: because i said

8 0
2 years ago
The diagram shows a logo made from three circles
ratelena [41]

Answer:

Use the formula π*(r^2) where r is radius

Area of big circle, all 3=314.1592654 (approximately) and this is =100%

Area of middle circle=153.93804

Area of small circle=78.53981634

Percentage of middle circle with small circle = (153.93804/314.1592654)*100= 48.999999999999 approx= 49%

Percentage of small circle alone = (78.53981634/314.1592654)*100

= 25%

So 51%= big circle alone

And 51%+25%= 76%

100%-76%=24%

3 0
2 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Arthur borrowed $2,100 from the bank. 3 years later, Arthur owes the bank $2,478. What was the percentage rate of simple interes
ASHA 777 [7]

Answer:

Percentage Rate=6%

Step-by-step explanation:

Total borrowed=$2,100

Time=3 years

Rate=?

Total amount owed after 3 years= total borrowed + simple interest

$2,478=$2,100 + x

X=$2,478 - $2,100

=$378

The simple interest=$378

Simple interest=P×R×T

Where,

P= principal=$2,100

R=Rate=?

T=Time=3 years

Simple interest=$378

Simple interest=P×R×T/100

$378=$2,100×R×3/100

$378=$6,300R/100

$378=$63R

R=$378/$63

R=6

Therefore,

Rate=6%

7 0
2 years ago
Read 2 more answers
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