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Zinaida [17]
1 year ago
7

"Which of the following is a support activity in a firm's value chain? A) Inbound logistics B) Operations C) Sales and marketing

D) Service E) Technology"
Business
1 answer:
Pepsi [2]1 year ago
4 0

Answer:

The technology is a support activity in a firm's value chain.

Explanation:

Value chain analysis means the analysis which adds the value to the organization. It can be categorized in two activities - primary activities and support activities. This value chain analysis is propounded by Porter.

The primary activities includes inbound & outbound logistics, operations, Marketing & sales and service whereas support activities includes firm infrastructure, human resource management, technology , and procurement.

Thus,  the technology is a support activity in a firm's value chain.

You might be interested in
Suppose the yield on a 10-year T-bond is currently 5.05% and that on a 10-year Treasury Inflation Protected Security (TIPS) is 1
Serhud [2]

Answer:

c. 2.35%

Explanation:

10 year T bond Yield = 5.05 % (let it be rT10)

10 year TIPS yield = 1.8 % ( let it be r* )

MRP = 0.9%

Expected Inflation = rT10 - r* - MRP

                               = 5.05 % - 1.8 % - 0.9%

                               = 2.35 %

Therefore, The expected rate of inflation over the next 10 years is 2,35%.

4 0
1 year ago
Gerber Products Company brands its baby food and is an example of a resource that is potentially inimitable, making it difficult
jekas [21]
Hope this helps . It’s on quizlet

5 0
1 year ago
Masters Machine Shop is considering a four-year project to improve its production efficiency. Buying a new machine press for $38
KATRIN_1 [288]

Answer:

Since the NPV is positive, then the company should buy and install the machine press.

Explanation:

We have to calculate the NPV of the project using the discount cash flow model:

the initial investment = $385,000 (depreciable machinery) + $20,000 spare parts + $3,100 = $408,100

depreciation expense (five year MACRS class)

  • $385,000 x 20% = $77,000
  • $385,000 x 32% = $123,200
  • $385,000 x 19.20% = $73,920
  • $385,000 x 11.52% = $44,352
  • $385,000 x 11.52% = $44,352
  • $385,000 x 5.76% = $22,176

Cash flow year 1 = [($145,000 - $77,000) x (1 - 22%)] + $77,000 = $130,040

Cash flow year 2 = [($145,000 - $123,200) x (1 - 22%)] + $123,200 = $140,204

Cash flow year 3 = [($145,000 - $73,920) x (1 - 22%)] + $73,920 = $129,362

Cash flow year 4 = {[($145,000 - $44,352) x (1 - 22%)] + $44,352} + $3,100 (recovered working capital) + $45,000 (salvage value) + $4,736 (tax credit on impairment loss*) = $175,693

*since the carrying value at the end of year 4 is $66,528 and the salvage value is $45,000, an impairment loss will = $21,528. This will result in lower taxes by $21,528 x 22% = $4,736

the NPV of the project = -$408,100 + $130,040/1.09 + $140,204/1.09² + $129,362/1.09³ + $175,693/1.09⁴ = -$408,100 + $119,303 + $118,007 + $99,891 + $124,465 = $53,566

Since the NPV is positive, then the company should buy and install the machine press.

4 0
2 years ago
Chris was the business manager for a real estate firm earning an annual salary of $40,000. Then Chris decided to become a consul
Reptile [31]

Answer:

The answer is: $40,000

Explanation:

Chris's opportunity cost of working as a consultant instead of working as a business manager (her old job) is $40,000. So in order for Chris to earn normal profit, the difference between his revenue and his combined explicit (e.g. rent, assistant's salary) and implicit costs (opportunity cost) is zero.

7 0
1 year ago
An investor purchased a "par bond" for $500 with the principal $500. Over n = 6 years the bond will pay 2% coupon annually. Find
liubo4ka [24]

Answer:

2.0%

Explanation:

Coupon received annually = $500*2% = $10

We have the cash flow from year 0 to year 6 as below:

Year 0 ($500)

Year 1 $10  

Year 2 $10  

Year 3 $10  

Year 4 $10  

Year 5 $10  

Year 6 $510   (Principal $500 & coupon $10)

IRR (internal rate of return) whereas  the present value of all cash flow is nil

It is very difficult to calculate IRR manually, but easily in excel = IRR(-500,10,10,10,10,10,510) = 2%

Please see excel attached

Download xlsx
3 0
1 year ago
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