Answer:
annual percentage rate: 7.0404%
Explanation:
We need to solve for the annual convertible rate when we are given with the annual effective rate:
![(1+APR/52)^{52}=1+0.07289\\APR =( \sqrt[52]{1.07289} -1) \times 52\\](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=%281%2BAPR%2F52%29%5E%7B52%7D%3D1%2B0.07289%5C%5CAPR%20%3D%28%20%5Csqrt%5B52%5D%7B1.07289%7D%20-1%29%20%5Ctimes%2052%5C%5C)
apr = 0.0704035593 = 7.0404%
What is the question? sorry I can't help
Answer:
Check the explanation
Explanation:
a)
In IFRS according to IAS 19 all past service cost is recognized in the net income in the period in which amendment (change) is made by entity for defined benefit pension, it does not matter what is the status of the employees who will benefit the change. So in Year 1 $150000 will be expended completely and in subsequent years the amount is $0
Year 1 =$150000
Subsequent years= $0
b) In US GAAP the past service cost is recorded in Accumulated other comprehensive income in the year of amendment. It is amortized over the future working life of the participants.
Year 1 is year of adoption hence $0 is amortized because $150000 is included in Accumulated other comprehensive income.
Subsequent years: (150000/10=15000) $15000 will be amortized for each year for 10 years.
Answer: $75
Explanation:
After deduction all expenses and taxes, the balance left either at hand or in bank is the discretionary income.
I think option 2
because use have the extra 100 units and you need 600