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3241004551 [841]
2 years ago
15

Suppose you operate a coal power plant and is considering upgrading the flue gas desulphurisation (FGD) facility (or "scrubbers"

) to reduce sulphur dioxide emissions. A contractor says their new system will cost $5000 per year to operate. Calculate, to the nearest dollar, the present value of the operational costs for the next four years. Assume a discount rate of 2%.
Business
1 answer:
Novosadov [1.4K]2 years ago
4 0

Answer:

The present value is   $19,039

Explanation:

The computation of the Present value is shown below

= Present value of all yearly cash inflows after applying discount factor

The discount factor should be computed by

= 1 ÷ (1 + rate) ^ years

where,  

rate is 2%  

Year = 0,1,2,3,4 and so on

Discount Factor:

For Year 1 = 1 ÷ 1.02^1 = 0.9804

For Year 2 = 1 ÷ 1.02^2 = 0.9612

For Year 3 = 1 ÷ 1.02^3 = 0.9423

For Year 4 = 1 ÷ 1.02^4 = 0.9238

So, the calculation of a Present value of all yearly cash inflows are shown below

= (Year 1 cash inflow × Present Factor of Year 1) + (Year 2 cash inflow × Present Factor of Year 2) + (Year 3 cash inflow × Present Factor of Year 3) + (Year 4 cash inflow × Present Factor of Year 4)

= ($5,000 × 0.9804) + ($5,000 × 0.9612) + ($5,000 × 0.9423) + ($5,000 × 0.9238)

= $4,901.96  + $4,805.84  + $4,711.61  + $4,619.23

=  $19,039

We take the first four digits of the discount factor.  

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You are evaluating two different silicon wafer milling machines. The Techron I costs $285,000, has a three-year life, and has pr
KonstantinChe [14]

Answer:

EAC Techron I = -$141,050

EAC Techron II = -$138,181

Explanation:

Techron I costs $285,000, has a three-year life, and has pretax operating costs of $78,000 per year. Salvage value $55,000, use straight line depreciation.

annuity factor = [1 - 1/(1 + r)ⁿ] / r = [1 - 1/(1 + 0.11)³] / 0.11 = 2.4437

depreciation expense per year = ($285,000 - $55,000) / 3 = $76,667

cash outflow years 1 and 2 = [($78,000 + $76,667) x (1 - 24%)] - $76,667 = ($154,667 x 0.76) - $76,667 = $40,880

cash outflow year 3 = [($78,000 + $76,667) x (1 - 24%)] - $76,667 - $55,000 = ($154,667 x 0.76) - $76,667 - $55,000 = -$14,120

NPV = -285,000 - 40,880/1.11 - 40,880/1.11² + 14,120/1.11³ = -285,000 - 36,829 - 33,179 + 10,324 = -344,684

EAC = NPV / annuity factor = -344,684 / 2.4437 = -$141,050

Techron II costs $495,000, has a five-year life, and has pretax operating costs of $45,000 per year. Salvage value $55,000, use straight line depreciation.

annuity factor = [1 - 1/(1 + r)ⁿ] / r = [1 - 1/(1 + 0.11)⁵] / 0.11 = 3.6959

depreciation expense per year = ($495,000 - $55,000) / 5 = $88,000

cash outflow years 1 through 4 = [($45,000 + $88,000) x (1 - 24%)] - $88,000 = ($133,000 x 0.76) - $88,000 = $13,080

cash outflow year 5 = [($45,000 + $88,000) x (1 - 24%)] - $88,000 - $55,000 = ($133,000 x 0.76) - $88,000 - $55,000 = -$41,920

NPV = -495,000 - 13,080/1.11 - 13,080/1.11² - 13,080/1.11³ - 13,080/1.11⁴ + 41,920/1.11⁵ = -495,000 - 11,784 - 10,616 - 9,564 - 8,616 + 24,877 = -510,703

EAC = NPV / annuity factor = -510,703 / 3.6959 = -$138,181

4 0
2 years ago
You just won $17,500 and deposited your winnings into an account that pays 6.7 percent interest, compounded annually. How long w
MAVERICK [17]

Answer:

16.20 years

Explanation:

In order to calculate this, we use the future value (FV) formula as follows:

FV = PV × (1 + r)^n …………………………….. (1)

Where;

FV = Future value of the winnings = $50,000

PV = Present value of the winnings = $17,500

r = Interest rate = 6.7% = 0.067

n = number of years =?

Substituting the values above into equation (1) and solve for n, we have:

50,000 = 17,500 × (1 + 0.067)^n

50,000/17,500 = 1.067^n

2.85714285714286 = 1.067^n

Log linearizing and rearranging the above equation, we have:

n × ln1.067 = ln2.85714285714286

n × 0.0648509723196163 = 1.05082162483176

n = 1.05082162483176/0.0648509723196163 = 16.20 years

Therefore, you will have to wait for 16.20 years until your winnings are worth $50,000.

6 0
2 years ago
The sensitivity of bank profits to changes in interest rates can be measured more directly using ▼ duration analysis credit rati
Pavel [41]

Answer:

The correct answer is Gap Analysis.

Explanation:

The deficiency analysis is a strategic planning tool that will help you understand where you are, where you want to go and how to get there.

One of the first steps for the transition or implementation of your management system is to check your management system with respect to the requirements of the standard. This is what is commonly known as deficiency analysis, also known as pre-audit.

The deficiency analysis is carried out at the beginning of the certification process to verify compliance with the requirements of the standards to be implemented. Each standard has specific requirements that must be met and are detailed in several clauses. If your system does not meet these requirements, you must solve this problem in order to get certified.

8 0
2 years ago
Read 2 more answers
San Francisco Corporation uses two materials in the production of its product. The materials, X and Y, have the following standa
levacccp [35]

Answer:

(1) Material usage variance for X: 1,500 (Favorable)

(2) Material usage variance for Y: -19,500 (Adverse)

Explanation:

Material usage variance for X:

Standard Mix for actual Yield:

= (Standard mix of material X ÷ Yield) × Yield actual mix

= (3,500 ÷ 4,000) × 36,000

=  31,500

Material Usage Variance:

= (Standard Mix for actual Yield- Actual Mix) × Standard unit price

= (31,500-30,000) × $1

= 1,500 (Favorable)

Material usage variance for Y:

Standard Mix for actual Yield:

= (Standard mix of material Y ÷ Yield) × Yield actual mix

= (1,500 ÷ 4,000) × 36,000

=  13,500

Material Usage Variance:

= (Standard Mix for actual Yield- Actual Mix) × Standard unit price

= (13,500 - 20,000) × $3

= -19,500 (Adverse)

Total = (19,500) + 1,500

        = (18,000) [Adverse]

4 0
2 years ago
Any attempt to improve managerial performance by imparting knowledge, changing attitudes, or increasing skills is called _______
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