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LenKa [72]
1 year ago
15

The equation r (t) = (8t + 5)i + (8t^2 - 2)j + (6t )k is the position of a particle in space at time t. Find the​ particle's vel

ocity and acceleration vectors. Then write the​ particle's velocity at t equals 0 as a product of its speed and direction. What is the velocity​ vector?
Mathematics
1 answer:
Paha777 [63]1 year ago
8 0

Answer:

The particle's velocity is  the derivative of the particle's position. The particles's acceleration is the derivative of the particle's velocity. You can compute the velocity and acceleration as follows:

Step-by-step explanation:

\vec{v}(t)=\frac{dr}{dt}=\frac{d}{dt}(8t+5)\overrightarrow{i}+\frac{d}{dt}(8t^2-2)\overrightarrow{j}+\frac{d}{dt}(6t)\overrightarrow{k}=8\overrightarrow{i}+16t\overrightarrow{j}+6\overrightarrow{k}.

\vec{a}(t)=\frac{dv}{dt}=\frac{d}{dt}(8)\overrightarrow{i}+\frac{d}{dt}(16t)\overrightarrow{j}+\frac{d}{dt}(6)\overrightarrow{k}=0\overrightarrow{i}+16\overrightarrow{j}+0\overrrighatarrow{k}.

The velocity at t=0 is \vec{v}(0)=8\overrightarrow{i}+0\overrightarrow{j}+6\overrighatarrow{k}.

The speed at t=0 is \lVert \vec{v}(0)\rVert =10. Then, the velocity at t=0 written as a product of the speed at t=0 and the direction at t=0 is

\vec{v}(0)=\lVert \vec{v}(0)\rVert \dfrac{\vec{v}(0)}{\lVert \vec{v}(0)\rVert}=10\cdot(\dfrac{8}{10},0,\dfrac{6}{10}).

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Given:
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margin of error = z * δ / √n

where : δ - population of the standard deviation, n is the sample size ; z is the appropriate z value.

90% confidence level = 1.645 in z-value

margin of error = 1.645 * (6/√80) = 1.645 * (6/8.94) = 1.645 *  0.671 = 1.104

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1 year ago
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A parking garage charges $5.50 to park for 4 hours and $7.75 to park for 7 hours. If the cost is a linear function of the number
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Y=mx+b
m=slope
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two points
cost=y
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A company wants to determine if its employees have any preference among 5 different health plans which it offers to them. A samp
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a) 13.277

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The value of alpha is given which is 0.01 and degree of freedom can be calculated as

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1 year ago
A player of a video game is confronted with a series of four opponents and an 80% probability of defeating each opponent. Assume
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Answer:

(a) 0.4096

(b) 0.64

(c) 0.7942

Step-by-step explanation:

The probability that the player wins is,

P(W)=0.80

Then the probability that the player losses is,

P(L)=1-P(W)=1-0.80=0.20

The player is playing the video game with 4 different opponents.

It is provided that when the player is defeated by an opponent the game ends.

All the possible ways the player can win is: {L, WL, WWL, WWWL and WWWW)

(a)

The results from all the 4 opponents are independent, i.e. the result of a game played with one opponent is unaffected by the result of the game played with another opponent.

The probability that the player defeats all four opponents in a game is,

P (Player defeats all 4 opponents) = P(W)\times P(W)\times P(W)\times P(W)=[P(W)]^{4} =(0.80)^{4}=0.4096

Thus, the probability that the player defeats all four opponents in a game is 0.4096.

(b)

The probability that the player defeats at least two opponents in a game is,

P (Player defeats at least 2) = 1 - P (Player losses the 1st game) - P (Player losses the 2nd game) = 1-P(L)-P(WL)

                                    =1-(0.20)-(0.80\times0.20)\\=1-0.20-0.16\\=0.64

Thus, the probability that the player defeats at least two opponents in a game is 0.64.

(c)

Let <em>X</em> = number of times the player defeats all 4 opponents.

The probability that the player defeats all four opponents in a game is,

P(WWWW) = 0.4096.

Then the random variable X\sim Bin(n=3, p=0.4096)

The probability distribution of binomial is:

P(X=x)={n\choose x}p^{x} (1-p)^{n-x}

The probability that the player defeats all the 4 opponents at least once is,

P (<em>X</em> ≥ 1) = 1 - P (<em>X</em> < 1)

             = 1 - P (<em>X</em> = 0)

             =1-[{3\choose 0}(0.4096)^{0} (1-0.4096)^{3-0}]\\=1-[1\times1\times (0.5904)^{3}\\=1-0.2058\\=0.7942

Thus, the probability that the player defeats all the 4 opponents at least once is 0.7942.

3 0
1 year ago
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