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ch4aika [34]
2 years ago
7

A lessor is paid $45,000 by its commercial tenant as a lease cancellation fee. The tenant wanted to get out of its lease so it c

ould move to a different building. The lessor has held the lease for three years before it was canceled. The lessor had a zero tax basis for the lease. The lessor has received: *a. Ordinary income of $45,000. b. Long-term capital gain of $45,000. c. Short-term capital gain of $45,000. d. Neither gain nor loss. e. None of the above.
Business
1 answer:
ExtremeBDS [4]2 years ago
6 0

Answer:

The answer is: A) Ordinary income of $45,000.

Explanation:

The $45,000 the lessor collected from the lessee (his tenant) should be included as ordinary income.

IRS Internal Revenue Code Section 10. b. 1. establishes that payments received by a lessor for the cancellation of a lease are considering ordinary income.

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During a presentation, a prospect says, "I like the product, but I won't buy
Zina [86]

Answer:

I believe the best and most correct answer is A.)

Explanation:

3 0
1 year ago
Read 2 more answers
White & Checker is releasing a new power drill that requires the manufacturing of a new part.They are considering whether th
gizmo_the_mogwai [7]

Answer:

A

Explanation:

Breakeven quantity is the number of units produced and sold at which net income is zero

The product should not be released because the demand is less than breakeven quantity. If the product is released, the firm would earn losses

8 0
2 years ago
A 10-year U.S. Treasury bond with a face value of $1,000 pays a coupon of 5.5% (2.75% of face value every six months). The repor
Sveta_85 [38]

Answer:

YTM 5.2%  present value: $1,023.1644

YTM 1% present value:      $1,427.2169

YTM 8% present value:       $830.1209

YTM 8% present value:        $515.7617

Explanation:

YTM we will calculate the present value of the coupon payment

andthe maturity at each YTM rate given:

The coupon payment present value will be the present value of an ordinary annuity

C \times \frac{1-(1+r)^{-time} }{rate} = PV\\

Coupon payment 28 (1,000 x 2.75%)

time 20 (10 years x 2 payment per year)

rate          0.026 (YTM over 2 as the payment are semiannually)

27.5 \times \frac{1-(1+0.026)^{-20} }{0.026} = PV\\

PV $424.6800

The present value of the maturity will be the present value of a lump sum:

\frac{Maturity}{(1 + rate)^{time} } = PV  

Maturity   1,000.00

time   20.00

rate  0.026

\frac{1000}{(1 + 0.026)^{20} } = PV  

PV   598.48

PV c $424.6800

PV m  $598.4843

Total $1,023.1644

Now, we will calculate changin the YTM the concept and formulas are the same, just the rate is diffrent:

<u>If YTM = 1% </u>

27.5 \times \frac{1-(1+0.005)^{-20} }{0.005} = PV\\

\frac{1000}{(1 + 0.005)^{20} } = PV  

PV c $522.1540

PV m  $905.0629

Total $1,427.2169

<u>If YTM = 8%</u>

27.5 \times \frac{1-(1+0.04)^{-20} }{0.04} = PV\\

\frac{1000}{(1 + 0.04)^{20} } = PV

PV c    $373.7340

PV m   $456.3869

Total    $830.1209

<u>If YTM = 15%</u>

27.5 \times \frac{1-(1+0.075)^{-20} }{0.075} = PV\\

\frac{1000}{(1 + 0.075)^{20} } = PV

PV c $280.3485

PV m  $235.4131

Total $515.7617

3 0
1 year ago
You can now sell 70 cars per month at $35,000 per car, and demand is increasing at a rate of 4 cars per month each month. What i
Eduardwww [97]

Answer:

the fastest we could drop your price before your monthly revenue starts to drop is $2,000

Explanation:

Data provided in the question:

Cars sold per month, Q =  70 cars

Price of each car, P = $35,000

Rate of increase in demand, \frac{dQ}{dt} = 4 cars per month

Now,

Revenue, R = Price(P) × Quantity (Q)

Thus,

When monthly revenue starts to drop i.e \frac{dR}{dt} < 0

⇒ \frac{dR}{dt} = \frac{d(PQ)}{dt} < 0

or

⇒ P\frac{dP}{dt}+Q\frac{dQ}{dt} < 0

or

⇒ 70\times\frac{dP}{dt}+35,000\times4 < 0

or

⇒ 70\times\frac{dP}{dt} < - 140,000

or

\frac{dP}{dt} < - 2,000

Hence,

the fastest we could drop your price before your monthly revenue starts to drop is $2,000

7 0
1 year ago
Acadia, Inc. recorded restructuring charges of $235,542 thousand during fiscal 2017 related entirely to anticipated employee sep
Karolina [17]

Answer:

A. $205,899 thousand

Explanation:

cash flow effect = restructuring charges - the company’s balance sheet included a restructuring accrual

                           =  $235,542 thousand - $29,643 thousand

                           = $205,899 thousand

Therefore, The cash flow effect of Acadia’s restructuring during fiscal 2017 was $205,899 thousand.

4 0
2 years ago
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