Answer:
9.9 %
Explanation:
he formula for calculating dividend yield is as follows,
Dividend yield= Annual dividend/stock price x 100
For this case: Annual dividend = 4 ( $ 2.1 per quarter)
=$ 8.4
Stock price: $85
Dividend yield = $8.4/$85 x 100
=9.88%
=9.9 %
Answer:
What is the budgeted cash received from customers?
Explanation:
cash received from customers = total sales revenue + beginning accounts receivable - ending accounts receivable
- total sales revenue = 20,000 x 205 = $4,100,000
- beginning accounts receivable = $40,000
- ending accounts receivable = $20,000
cash received from customers = $4,100,000 + $40,000 - $20,000 = $4,120,000
Answer:
One year from the date of the listing if the transaction is not consummated.
Explanation:
Retention period is the number of years as enforced by the law that a certain records must be kept compulsorily before it is eligible for destruction. The retention period shall be 1 one year from the date of the from the date of listing or closing of the transaction if the transaction is not consummated. Retention period is generally in many cases is 1 year and not more than that.
Answer:
We have to classify the transfers as Direct Transfer, Indirect Transfer Through Investment Banks, and Indirect Transfer Through Financial Intermediaries.
(a) - Indirect Transfer Through Financial Intermediaries.
A market mutual fund is a financial intermediary, and it is the option that Elliot has chosen to transfer capital.
(b) - Direct Transfer
As the statement explains, the company has not gone through any financial intermediation to raise capital. It has directly done so.
(c) - Indirect Transfer Through Investment Banks
xEdu.com hired an an investment banking to issue its initial public offering
(d) - Direct Transfer
Erin borrowed the money from his uncle without any financial intermediation.
Answer:
Check the explanation
Explanation:
a)
In IFRS according to IAS 19 all past service cost is recognized in the net income in the period in which amendment (change) is made by entity for defined benefit pension, it does not matter what is the status of the employees who will benefit the change. So in Year 1 $150000 will be expended completely and in subsequent years the amount is $0
Year 1 =$150000
Subsequent years= $0
b) In US GAAP the past service cost is recorded in Accumulated other comprehensive income in the year of amendment. It is amortized over the future working life of the participants.
Year 1 is year of adoption hence $0 is amortized because $150000 is included in Accumulated other comprehensive income.
Subsequent years: (150000/10=15000) $15000 will be amortized for each year for 10 years.
