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Arte-miy333 [17]
2 years ago
13

The number of flaws in a fiber optic cable follows a Poisson distribution. It is known that the mean number of flaws in 50m of c

able is 1.2. a) What is the probability of exactly three flaws in 150m of cable? b) What is the probability of at least two flaws in 100m of cable? c) What is the probability of exactly one flaw in the first 50m of cable, and exactly one flaw in the second 50m of cable?
Mathematics
1 answer:
boyakko [2]2 years ago
4 0

Answer:

(a) The probability of exactly three flaws in 150 m of cable is 0.21246

(b) The probability of at least two flaws in 100m of cable is 0.69155

(c) The probability of exactly one flaw in the first 50 m of cable, and exactly one flaw in the second 50 m of cable is 0.13063

Step-by-step explanation:

A random variable X has a Poisson distribution and it is referred to as Poisson random variable if and only if its probability distribution is given by

p(x;\lambda)=\frac{\lambda e^{-\lambda}}{x!} for x = 0, 1, 2, ...

where \lambda, the mean number of successes.

(a) To find the probability of exactly three flaws in 150 m of cable, we first need to find the mean number of flaws in 150 m, we know that the mean number of flaws in 50 m of cable is 1.2, so the mean number of flaws in 150 m of cable is 1.2 \cdot 3 =3.6

The probability of exactly three flaws in 150 m of cable is

P(X=3)=p(3;3.6)=\frac{3.6^3e^{-3.6}}{3!} \approx 0.21246

(b) The probability of at least two flaws in 100m of cable is,

we know that the mean number of flaws in 50 m of cable is 1.2, so the mean number of flaws in 100 m of cable is 1.2 \cdot 2 =2.4

P(X\geq 2)=1-P(X

P(X\geq 2)=1-p(0;2.4)-p(1;2.4)\\\\P(X\geq 2)=1-\frac{2.4^0e^{-2.4}}{0!}-\frac{2.4^1e^{-2.4}}{1!}\\\\P(X\geq 2)\approx 0.69155

(c) The probability of exactly one flaw in the first 50 m of cable, and exactly one flaw in the second 50 m of cable is

P(X=1)=p(1;1.2)=\frac{1.2^1e^{-1.2}}{1!}\\P(X=1)\approx 0.36143

The occurrence of flaws in the first and second 50 m of cable are independent events. Therefore the probability of exactly one flaw in the first 50 m and exactly one flaw in the second 50 m is

(0.36143)(0.36143) = 0.13063

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Answer:

B and D

Step-by-step explanation:

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To find equations that make this work, we need to find different ways to represent 5%.

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Answer:

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2 years ago
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<em><u>Solution:</u></em>

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