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DedPeter [7]
1 year ago
7

Lori approaches Pedro about creating a special wine for her daughter's upcoming wedding. Lori will buy 50 bottles of Pedro's win

e, but the order will have fixed costs for special labeling and delivery of $300. Pedro wants to go into the negotiations with Lori knowing the minimum price he can charge per bottle and not lose money on the order. What is that minimum price?
Business
1 answer:
Vera_Pavlovna [14]1 year ago
5 0

Answer:

The minimum price will be $[($300/50) + x] per bottle or $(6 + x) per bottle with x is the total variable cost plus avoidable fixed costs ( fixed costs besides special labeling and delivery which will not incur if these special wine bottles not produced)  it takes Pedro to produce one bottle of special wine for Lori.

Explanation:

To not lose money in this case, Pedro has to charge a minimum price per bottle that equals to the sum of:  1. fixed cost incurred in special labeling and delivery process allocated to one bottle ( as stated in the Answer is $300/50 = $6), 2. other avoidable fixed costs ( fixed costs which will not incur if these 50 special wine bottles not produced) allocated to one bottle of special wines besides the fixed cost stated in (1), 3. variable costs incurred to the production of one bottle of special wine.  

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Answer:

Instructions are below.

Explanation:

1)

<u>a) First, we need to calculate the total estimated overhead:</u>

Total overhead= 1,100,000 + (5*50,000)= 1,350,000

<u>Now, we can determine the overhead rate:</u>

Predetermined manufacturing overhead rate= total estimated overhead costs for the period/ total amount of allocation base

Predetermined manufacturing overhead rate= 1,350,000/50,000

Predetermined manufacturing overhead rate= $27 per machine hour

<u>b) </u>

Job D-75:

Total cost= direct material + direct labor + allocated overhead

Total cost= 700,000 + 360,000 + 27*20,000

Total cost= $1,600,000

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Total cost= 550,000 + 400,000 + 27*30,000

Total cost= $1,760,000

c) Selling price= 150% of manufacturing costs

Job D-75= 1,600,000*1.5= $2,400,000

Job C-200= 1,760,000*1.5= $2,640,000

d) COGS= beginning finished inventory + cost of goods manufactured - ending finished inventory

COGS=  0 + (1,600,000 + 1,760,000) - 0

COGS= $3,360,000

<u>2) </u>

<u>a) </u>

Molding= (800,000/20,000) + 5= $45 per machine hour

Assembly= (300,000/30,000) + 5= $15 per machine hour

<u>b) </u>

Job D-75:

Total cost= 700,000 + 360,000 + 45*20,000

Total cost= $$1,960,000

Job C-200:

Total cost= 550,000 + 400,000 + 15*30,000

Total cost= $1,400,000

<u>c) </u>

Job D-75= 1,960,000*1.5= $2,940,000

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4 0
2 years ago
Pettijohn Inc. The balance sheet and income statement shown below are for Pettijohn Inc. Note that the firm has no amortization
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Answer:

The appropriate solution is "$2.91". A further explanation is given below.

Explanation:

Seems that the given question is incomplete. Below is the attachment of the full problem.

According to the question,

Common dividend,

= 509.83

Shares outstanding,

= 175

Now,

The dividend per share will be:

=  \frac{Common \ dividend}{Shares \ outstanding}

On substituting the values, we get

=  \frac{509.83}{175}

=  2.9133

or,

=  2.91

8 0
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On January 1, 20X9, Pitcher Corporation purchased 100 percent of Softball's stock. All tangible assets had a remaining economic
mina [271]

Answer:

The question is not complete,find attached complete question in word document.

Find all the journal entries in the attached spreadsheet

Explanation:

Please note the following points:

The goodwill is the excess of purchase consideration of $ 476,500.00  over the net assets of Softball acquired,that is $ 318,000.00  

The net assets is total assets acquired of $374,000 minus the liabilities taken over of $56000

Equity method income is the difference between Softball's net income reported and the dividends paid

Download docx
<span class="sg-text sg-text--link sg-text--bold sg-text--link-disabled sg-text--blue-dark"> docx </span>
<span class="sg-text sg-text--link sg-text--bold sg-text--link-disabled sg-text--blue-dark"> xlsx </span>
5 0
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A corporation has 10,000 bonds outstanding with a 6% annual coupon rate, 8 years to maturity, a $1,000 face value, and a $1,100
stiv31 [10]

Answer:

Year   Cashflow    [email protected]%      PV           [email protected]%     PV

               $                                 $                                  $

  0        (1,100)           1           (1,100)           1             (1,100)

1-8        47.4             5.3349  252.87      7.0197      332.73

 8       1,000             0.4665    465.5      0.7894       789.4

                                  NPV      (381.63)              NPV 22.13                    

Kd = LR     + NPV1/NPV1+NPV2    x (HR – LR)

Kd = 3       + 22.13/22.13 + 381.63   x (10 – 3)

Kd =  3       + 22.13/403.76 x 7

Kd = 3        + 0.38

Kd = 3.38%  

Explanation:

Cost of debt is calculated based on internal rate of return formula. In year 0, we will consider the current market price of the bond as cashflow. In year 1 to 8, we will consider the after-tax coupon as the cashflow. The after-tax coupon is calculated as R(1 - T).  R is 6% x $1,000 = $60 and tax is 21%. Thus, we have $60(1  - 0.21) = $47.4. then we will discount the cashflows for  8 years so as to obtain the internal rate of return. The internal rate of return represents cost of debt.

3 0
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Answer:

The answer is b) describe how to create intense and active loyalty relationships with customers.

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