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Harman [31]
2 years ago
11

sense or nonsense? Lori says that 8 is not a factor of 80 because 8 does not end in zero. Does Lori's statement make sense?

Mathematics
1 answer:
Gnesinka [82]2 years ago
3 0
It it does not make sense because 5 is a factor of ten but 5 dosnet end I zero if you can multiply 8 by a another number to get 80 8 is a factor
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6x2y – 2x2y – 10x2y + 8x2y =
svp [43]

Answer:

4y is your answer........

6 0
2 years ago
A small cube with side length 6y is placed inside a larger cube with side length 4x^2. What is the difference in the volume of t
fomenos

the different volume is the numbers. 4*2*6=?


3 0
2 years ago
Read 2 more answers
jose is choosing a 3-letter password from the letters a,b,c,d. the password cannot have the same letter repeated in it. how many
kvasek [131]
Alright, so we are dealing with permutations. Permutations are the number of combinations in a specific order possible for the set. 

There's 4 letters, each one can be paired with 3 other letters, but those letters could be in different orders. To figure out how many variations of each combination there are (aka the number of permutations) use this formula:

_{n}P_{r}= \frac{n!}{(n-r)!}

r= number of elements in the subset

n= number of elements in the set

P= permutations of the set

There are only 3 elements in the subset because there is 1 that will not be repeated in each set, and there are 4 elements in the set.

Here's the math:

_{n}P_{r}= \frac{n!}{(n-r)!}

_{4}P_{3}= \frac{4!}{(4-3)!}

_{4}P_{3}= \frac{4!}{(1)!}

_{4}P_{3}= \frac{4(3)(2)(1)}{1}

_{4}P_{3}=24

There are 24 permutations. I can prove this by showing you the model:

ABCD, ABDC, ACBD, ACDB, ADBC, ADCB are the 6 arrangements possible of the set starting with the letter A. Because there are 4 letters, the total amount of permutations without repeated letters is 4 (letters) times 6 (possible arrangements), which equals 24.

Hope this helps!

Answer: 24 passwords are possible
5 0
2 years ago
Of all individual tax returns, 37 percent include errors made by the taxpayer. If IRS examiners are assigned randomly selected r
Dima020 [189]

Answer:

mean=4.44

standard deviation=1.67

Step-by-step explanation:

The mean and standard deviation for the number of erroneous returns per batch can be calculated using binomial distribution. The binomial distribution is used because

i) There are one of two possible outcomes( error or no error) that can be categorized into success and failure.

ii) The experiment is repeated fix number of times 12.

iii) The probability of success remains constant at each trial i.e. 37%

iv) The trails are independent.The mean and standard deviation of binomial distribution are np and √npq

Here, n=12, p=0.37 and q=1-0.37=0.63

mean=12*0.37=4.44

standard deviation=√12*0.37*0.63=√2.8=1.67

8 0
2 years ago
Supervisor: "Last week, you spoke with 800 customers in 40 hours."
algol13

Answer:12

Step-by-step explanation:

0 0
2 years ago
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