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Angelina_Jolie [31]
1 year ago
5

For the current year, Klay Corporation reports the following information:

Business
2 answers:
DerKrebs [107]1 year ago
7 0

Answer:

The company’s cash flows from operating activities was a cash inflow of $5,000

Explanation:

Cash at the end of the year = Cash at the beginning of the year + Net cash inflows from investing activities + Net cash inflows from financing activities + Net cash inflows from operating activities

Therefore,

Net cash inflows from operating activities = Cash at the beginning of the year + Net cash inflows from investing activities + Net cash inflows from financing activities - Cash at the end of the year = $340,000 + $40,000 + $45,000 - $420,000 = $5,000 >0

The company’s cash flows from operating activities was a cash inflow of $5,000

Doss [256]1 year ago
4 0

Answer:

A cash outflow of $5,000

Explanation:

the sum of cash flows from the operating, investing and financing activities must equal the net change in cash during the period

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FCOJ, Inc., a prominent consumer products firm, is debating whether or not to convert its all-equity capital structure to one th
Strike441 [17]

Answer:

a. $684

b. $480.6

c. 63 shares

Explanation:

a. The calculation of cash flow under the current capital structure is given below:-

Earning per share = Net income ÷ Shares

= $26,220 ÷ 6,900

= $3.8 per share

Cash flow = Earning per share × Stock shares

=$3.8 × 180 shares

= $684

b. The calculation of cash flow be under the proposed capital structure is given below:-

Value = $59 × 6,900

= $407,100

Under the capital structure suggested the company would collect new debt in the amount of:

Debt = 0.35 × $4071,00

= $142,485

Which means the amount of the repurchased shares will be:-

Shares repurchased = $142,485 ÷ $59

= $2,415

The Company will have to make an interest payment on the new debt under the new capital structure. The net income with the interest payment will be:-

Net income = $26,220 - 0.10 × $142,485

=$11,971.5

This means that the EPS will come under the new capital structure

Earning per share = $11,971.5 ÷ 4,485 shares

= $2.67 per share

Since all profits are paid out as dividends, the shareholder receives:-

Shareholder cash flow = Earning per share × Stock shares

= $2.67 × 180 shares

= $480.6

c. The shareholder would sell 35% of their shareholdings

= Shares × Debt percentage

= 180 × 35%

= 63 shares

5 0
1 year ago
An analyst following Barlow Energy has compiled the following information in preparation for additional analysis she has to incl
Vadim26 [7]

Answer:

FCFE: 99

Explanation:

FCFE: cash flow from operation - CAPEX + borrowing

we calcualte the cash flwo form operation using the indirect method:

net income - preferred dividends = available for common stock

income = 125  + 14 = 139

net income                                       139

depreciation expense                      50

change in working capital               (30)

          cash flow from operation: 159

CAPEX will be the long term assets investment

investment on fixed capital<u> 100 </u>

                          CAPEX       100

net borrowing                        40

159 -100 + 40 = 99

3 0
1 year ago
Given a stock index with a value of $1,200, an anticipated dividend of $45, and a risk-free rate of 6%, what should be the value
kramer

Answer: $1,227

Explanation:

The value of the futures contract should be calculated by the formula;

= Stock Index Value * ( 1 + risk free rate ) - dividends

= 1,200 * ( 1 + 0.06) - 45

= $1,227

8 0
1 year ago
The Petit Chef Co. has 11.3 percent coupon bonds on the market with eight years left to maturity. The bonds make annual payments
IgorC [24]

Answer:

The yield to maturity is 9.127%

Explanation:

The yield to maturity is the yield or return on the bond as a percentage of its current price in the market. The formula to calculate the yield to maturity is:

YTM = C + {(F - P) / n}  /  {(F + P) / 2}

Where,

  • C is the coupon payment / interest payment on the bond
  • F is the face value of the bond
  • P is the current market price of the bond
  • n is the years to maturity

The coupon payment = 1000 * 0.113 = 113 per year

So, YTM =  113 + {(1000 - 1127.3) / 8}  /  {(1000 + 1127.3) / 2}

YTM = 0.09127 or 9.127%

8 0
1 year ago
g Western Electric has 27,500 shares of common stock outstanding at a price per share of $70 and a rate of return of 13.45 perce
Ede4ka [16]

Answer:

The WACC is 10.93%

Explanation:

The WACC or weighted average cost of capital is the cost of a firm's capital structure. The capital stricture may be formed of the following components namely debt, preferred stock and common stock. The WACC assigns the weights to each of these components based on the finance provided by each of the above components as a proportion of total capital structure or total assets.

The WACC is calculated by taking the market value of each component. The formula for WACC is as follows,

WACC = wD * rD * (1-tax rate)  +  wP * rP  +  wE * rE

Where,

  • w represents the weight of each component
  • r represents the cost of each component
  • D, P and E represents debt, preferred stock and Common stock respectively.
  • We take after tax cost of debt. So we multiply rD with (1-tax rate)

Debt = 377000 * 106.5%  = $401505

Preferred stock = 6850 * 90.50  =  $619925

Common stock = 27500 * 70  = $1925000

Total assets = 401505 + 619925 + 1925000  = $2946430

WACC = 401505/2946430 * 7.81% * (1-0.35)  +  619925/2946430 * 6.9%  +

1925000/2946430 * 13.45%

WACC = 0.1093 or 10.93%

6 0
2 years ago
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