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lesya692 [45]
2 years ago
8

The ground-state wave function for a particle confined to a one-dimensional box of length L is Ψ=(2/L)^1/2 Sin(πx/L). Suppose th

e box is 100 nm long.Calculate the probability that the particle is (a) between x= 4.95 nm and 5.05 nm (b) between x= 1.95 nm and 2.05 nm (c) between x=9.90 nm and 10.00 nm (d) in the right half of the box (e) in the central third of the box.
Mathematics
1 answer:
Hitman42 [59]2 years ago
3 0

Answer:

(a) 4.98x10⁻⁵

(b) 7.89x10⁻⁶

(c) 1.89x10⁻⁴

(d) 0.5

(e) 2.9x10⁻²  

Step-by-step explanation:  

The probability (P) to find the particle is given by:

P=\int_{x_{1}}^{x_{2}}(\Psi\cdot \Psi) dx = \int_{x_{1}}^{x_{2}} ((2/L)^{1/2} Sin(\pi x/L))^{2}dx  

P = \int_{x_{1}}^{x_{2}} (2/L) Sin^{2}(\pi x/L)dx     (1)

The solution of the intregral of equation (1) is:

P=\frac{2}{L} [\frac{X}{2} - \frac{Sin(2\pi x/L)}{4\pi /L}]|_{x_{1}}^{x_{2}}  

(a) The probability to find the particle between x = 4.95 nm and 5.05 nm is:

P=\frac{2}{100} [\frac{X}{2} - \frac{Sin(2\pi x/100)}{4\pi /100}]|_{4.95}^{5.05} = 4.98 \cdot 10^{-5}    

(b) The probability to find the particle between x = 1.95 nm and 2.05 nm is:

P=\frac{2}{100} [\frac{X}{2} - \frac{Sin(2\pi x/100)}{4\pi /100}]|_{1.95}^{2.05} = 7.89 \cdot 10^{-6}  

(c) The probability to find the particle between x = 9.90 nm and 10.00 nm is:

P=\frac{2}{100} [\frac{X}{2} - \frac{Sin(2\pi x/100)}{4\pi /100}]|_{9.90}^{10.00} = 1.89 \cdot 10^{-4}    

(d) The probability to find the particle in the right half of the box, that is to say, between x = 0 nm and 50 nm is:

P=\frac{2}{100} [\frac{X}{2} - \frac{Sin(2\pi x/100)}{4\pi /100}]|_{0}^{50.00} = 0.5

(e) The probability to find the particle in the central third of the box, that is to say, between x = 0 nm and 100/6 nm is:

P=\frac{2}{100} [\frac{X}{2} - \frac{Sin(2\pi x/100)}{4\pi /100}]|_{0}^{16.7} = 2.9 \cdot 10^{-2}

I hope it helps you!

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<span>Then, substitute (1,ln(2)) and solve for dy/dx. </span>

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What is the value of the expression i 0 × i 1 × i 2 × i 3 × i 4?
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The value of the expression is
- 1


EXPLANATION

Method 1: Rewrite as product of
{i}^{2}


The expression given to us is,

{i}^{0}  \times {i}^{1}  \times {i}^{2}  \times {i}^{3}  \times {i}^{4}


We use the fact that
{i}^{2}  =  - 1
to simplify the above expression.



{i}^{0}  \times {i}^{1}  \times {i}^{2}  \times {i}^{3}  \times {i}^{4}  =  {i}^{0}  \times {i}^{1}  \times {i}^{3}   \times {i}^{2}   \times {i}^{4}


This implies,


{i}^{0}  \times {i}^{1}  \times {i}^{2}  \times {i}^{3}  \times {i}^{4}  =  {i}^{0}  \times {i}^{2}  \times {i}^{2}   \times {i}^{2}   \times {i}^{2} \times {i}^{2}


We substitute to obtain,

{i}^{0}  \times {i}^{1}  \times {i}^{2}  \times {i}^{3}  \times {i}^{4}  =  1\times  - 1 \times  - 1  \times  - 1\times  - 1 \times  - 1


{i}^{0}  \times {i}^{1}  \times {i}^{2}  \times {i}^{3}  \times {i}^{4}  =  1\times  1 \times   1  \times  - 1 =  - 1


Method 2: Use indices to solve.



{i}^{0}  \times {i}^{1}  \times {i}^{2}  \times {i}^{3}  \times {i}^{4}  = {i}^{0 + 1 + 2 + 3 + 4}



This implies that,


{i}^{0}  \times {i}^{1}  \times {i}^{2}  \times {i}^{3}  \times {i}^{4}  = {i}^{10}




{i}^{0}  \times {i}^{1}  \times {i}^{2}  \times {i}^{3}  \times {i}^{4}  =  (  {{i}^{2}} )^{5}


{i}^{0}  \times {i}^{1}  \times {i}^{2}  \times {i}^{3}  \times {i}^{4}  =  (   - 1 )^{5}   =  - 1


8 0
2 years ago
Read 2 more answers
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