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2 years ago

ΔMNO was dilated, then _____________, to create ΔYHQ.

Mathematics

2 answers:

lesya [120]2 years ago

8 0

Rotated

<h2>Explanation:</h2>

Remember you have to write complete questions in order to find good and exact answer. So in this case I'll provide a general explanation and say that the blank can be filled with the word rotated. First of all, when dilating objects we reduce or enlarge the size of them. It's important to know the scale factor because this tells use whether the object will be larger or smaller, so if we call $k$ the scale factor, then:

If k > 0 then the object will be larger than the original.
If k < 0 then the object will be smaller than the original.

Moreover, the center of dilation is the point where all the lines that meet corresponding points of the original and dilated figure.

On the other hand, to rotate a shape we turn it about a fixed point that we call the center of rotation. So, in this case we'll have that ΔMNO is similar to ΔYHQ.

<h2>Learn more:</h2>

Dilation:

#LearnWithBrainly

seropon [69]2 years ago

3 0

Answer:

the Anwser is A

Step-by-step explanation:

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This background applies to the next several questions. Assume a 15 cm diameter wafer has a cost of 12, contains 84 dies, and has

nalin [4]

Answer:

1) $Yield_1= \frac{1}{(1+ 0.02 \frac{1}{2} 2.104)^2}=0.959$

$Yield_2= \frac{1}{(1+ 0.031 \frac{1}{2} 3.1415)^2}=0.909$

2) $Cost/die_1 = \frac{12}{84 x 0.959}=0.149$

$Cost/die_2 = \frac{15}{100 x 0.909}=0.165$

3) $Area_1 = \frac{1.1 \pi (7.5cm)^2}{84}=\frac{2.104 cm^2}{1.1}=1.913 cm^2$

$Area_2 = \frac{1.1 \pi (10cm)^2}{100}=\frac{3.1415 cm^2}{1.1}=2.856 cm^2$

And for the new yield we need to take in count the increase of 15% for the area and we got this:

$Yield_1= \frac{1}{(1+(1.15) 0.02 \frac{1}{2} 1.913)^2}=0.957$

$Yield_2= \frac{1}{(1+(1.15) 0.031 \frac{1}{2} 2.856)^2}=0.905$

4) $DR_{old}=\frac{1}{\sqrt{0.92}} -1$ =0.0426 defects/cm^2

$DR_{new}=\frac{1}{\sqrt{0.95}} -1$ =0.0260defects/cm^2

Step-by-step explanation:

Part 1

For this part first we need to find the die areas with the following formula:

$Area= \frac{W area}{Number count}$

$Area_1 = \frac{\pi (7.5cm)^2}{84}=2.104 cm^2$

$Area_2 = \frac{\pi (10cm)^2}{100}=3.1415 cm^2$

Now we can use the yield equation given by:

$Yield=\frac{1}{(1+ DR\frac{Area}{2})^2}$

And replacing we got:

$Yield_1= \frac{1}{(1+ 0.02 \frac{1}{2} 2.104)^2}=0.959$

$Yield_2= \frac{1}{(1+ 0.031 \frac{1}{2} 3.1415)^2}=0.909$

Part 2

For this part we can use the formula for cost per die like this:

$Cost/die = \frac{Cost per day_i}{Number count_i x Yield_i}$

And replacing we got:

$Cost/die_1 = \frac{12}{84 x 0.959}=0.149$

$Cost/die_2 = \frac{15}{100 x 0.909}=0.165$

Part 3

For this case we just need to calculate the new area and the new yield with the same formulas for part a, adn we got:

$Area_1 = \frac{1.1 \pi (7.5cm)^2}{84}=\frac{2.104 cm^2}{1.1}=1.913 cm^2$

$Area_2 = \frac{1.1 \pi (10cm)^2}{100}=\frac{3.1415 cm^2}{1.1}=2.856 cm^2$

And for the new yield we need to take in count the increase of 15% for the area and we got this:

$Yield_1= \frac{1}{(1+(1.15) 0.02 \frac{1}{2} 1.913)^2}=0.957$

$Yield_2= \frac{1}{(1+(1.15) 0.031 \frac{1}{2} 2.856)^2}=0.905$

Part 4

First we can convert the area to cm^2 and we got 2 cm^2 the yield would be on this case given by:

$Yield= \frac{1}{(1+DR\frac{2cm^2}{2})^2}=\frac{1}{1+(DR)^2}$

And if we solve for the Defect rate we got:

$DR= \frac{1}{\sqrt{Yield}}-1$

Now we can find the previous and new defect rate like this:

$DR_{old}=\frac{1}{\sqrt{0.92}} -1$ =0.0426 defects/cm^2

And for the new defect rate we got:

$DR_{new}=\frac{1}{\sqrt{0.95}} -1$ =0.0260defects/cm^2

5 0

2 years ago

A store that buys and sells used video games buys a game at a cost of $415 and sells it at a selling price of $477.25. Find t

PilotLPTM [1.2K]

The markup value = $62.25

The mark up percentage = 15%

Step-by-step explanation:

Step 1 :

Cost price of the video game = $415

Selling price of the video game = $477.25

We need to find the mark up value and the markup percentage

Step 2 :

The markup value can be computed by taking the difference of the selling and the cost price.

Hence the markup = $477.25-$415 = $62.25

The markup percentage is computed on the cost price

so the mark up percentage =( 62.25 ÷ 415) × 100 = 15%

Step 3 :

Answer :

The markup value = $62.25

The mark up percentage = 15%

6 0

2 years ago

The length of TR is 17 units. What are the lengths of SV and QT? (please hurry i dont get this question) also i need each indivi

Zielflug [23.3K]

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

From the diagram, it can be seen that TR is parallel to RV. This means that TR = RV. Given TR = 17 and RV = 3x+2

3x+2 = 17

3x = 17-2

3x = 15

x = 5

RV = 3(5)+2 = 17

QV = 4x+1 = 4(5)+1

QV = 21

Using Pythagoras theorem on ΔQRV to get RQ

QV² = QR²+RV²

21² = QR²+17²

QR² = 21²-17²

QR = 12.33

Using Pythagoras theorem on ΔQRT to get QT

From ΔQRT,

QT² = QR²+TR²

QT² = 12.33²+17²

QR² = 152.0289+289

QT² = 441.0289

QT =21

Since TS = 9(5)-4 = 41

Using Pythagoras theorem on ΔTRS

From ΔTRS,

TS² = RS²+TR²

41² = RS²+17²

RS² = 41²-17²

RS² = 1392

RS = 37.31

Similarly Using Pythagoras theorem on ΔRSV

From ΔRSV,

SV² = RV²+RS²

SV² = 17²+37.31²

SV² = 1681.0361

SV = 41

7 0

2 years ago

Read 2 more answers

Sue Jones is insured for bodily injury in the amount of 10/20. She is at fault in an accident in which Albert Smith is injured.

lianna [129]

For this case, what you should know is that Sue Jones insurance covers half of the expenses. Equivalently, her insurance covers:
10/20 = 1/2 = 0.5
Therefore, we have then that
a. for Albert
0.5 * (12000) = $ 6000
b. for Sam
0.5 * (8000) = $ 4000
c. total
The sum of the results of parts a and b
$ 6000 + $ 4000 = $ 10,000
answer
$ 6000
$ 4000
$ 10,000

4 0

2 years ago

Read 2 more answers

A probability experiment consists of rolling a a 6 6-sided die. find the probability of the event below. rolling a number with

LuckyWell [14K]

The outcomes on rolling a 5-sided die are : {1,2,3,4,5,6}

The factors of these outcomes are:
1 = 1 x 1
2 = 1 x 2
3 = 1 x 3
4 = 2 x 2
5 = 1 x 5
6 = 2 x 3

1 is not a prime number. So the numbers which have 2 prime factors are 4 and 6.

Thus, number of favorable outcomes = 2

The probability of rolling a number with exactly 2 prime factors = 2/6 = 1/3

3 0

2 years ago