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Alex73 [517]
2 years ago
10

The freebird turbocharger is being recalled. all customers who submitted warranty cards can have their installed turbochargers s

erviced free by authorized mechanics. if you do not have a warranty with freebird, bring your original receipt to your local freebird dealership and they will complete the repairs at cost.
Business
1 answer:
guajiro [1.7K]2 years ago
3 0

Answer:

The primary purpose of this message is <u>to inform a customer about a recall</u>.

The secondary purpose is <u>to retain the customer's goodwill.</u>

Explanation:

The primary purpose of this message is to inform their customers about a problem and how it can be solved. The secondary purpose, but not less important, is to increase customer goodwill which in turn increases customer loyalty. Customers that believe that a company cares for them, will create a bond with that company.

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Blue Ridge Bicycles uses a standard part in the manufacture of several of its bikes. The cost of producing​ 45,000 parts is​ $14
Morgarella [4.7K]

Answer:

$2.07 per unit

Explanation:

Currently 45,000 units produced

total cost= $72,000 (variable) + $70,000 (fixed) = $142,000

average total cost per unit = $142,000 / 45,000 units = $3.16 per unit

if the company outsources the production of the part:

total cost = $72,000 + ($70,000 x 30%) = $72,000 + $21,000 = $93,000

average total cost per unit = $93,000 / 45,000 units = $2.07 per unit

if Blue Ridge spends more than $2.07 per unit, it will be spending more money by outsourcing the part than by producing it.

e.g. $2.10 per unit

total costs = ($2.10 x 45,000) + ($70,000 x 70%) = $94,500 + $49,000 = $143,500 which is higher than $142,000.

3 0
2 years ago
An investment pays you $30,000 at the end of this year, and $15,000 at the end of each of the four following years. What is the
Stella [2.4K]

Answer:

Present value of the cashflow discounted at 5% per year 76,815.65

Explanation:

First, we calculate the present value of the 4 years 15,000 dollar annuity:

C \times \frac{1-(1+r)^{-time} }{rate} = PV\\

C 15,000.00

time 4

rate 0.05

15000 \times \frac{1-(1+0.05)^{-4} }{0.05} = PV\\

PV $53,189.2576

Now, we discount two more year as lump sum as this is two year after the invesmtent:

\frac{Maturity}{(1 + rate)^{time} } = PV  

Maturity  53,189.26

time  2.00

rate  0.05000

\frac{53189.2575624354}{(1 + 0.05)^{2} } = PV  

PV   48,244.2245

Finally we also discount the 30,000 by one year

30,000 / 1.05 = 28571.43

<em><u>We add up both to get the present value:</u></em>

48,244.22 + 28,571.43 =  76,815.65  

8 0
2 years ago
High Brow Express deals strictly with two customers. The payment from Customer A averages $537,400 and has a collection delay of
Marizza181 [45]

Answer:

The answer is E.

Explanation:

Total payment from customers is:

$537,400 + $737,500

= $1,274,900

Weighted average delay from customer A is:

($537,400/$1,274,900) x 3

=1.26 days

Weighted average delay from customer B is:

($737,500/$1,274,900) x 1

=0.58 day

Therefore, total weighted average delay is:

1.26 days + 0.58 day

=1.84days

5 0
2 years ago
Art Company issued 6%, 5 year bonds, with par value of $1,600,000, paying semiannual interest for $1,470,226. The annual market
Soloha48 [4]

Answer:

The correct answer is option (B).

Explanation:

According to the scenario, the given data are as follows:

Bond carrying value = $1,470,226

Rate of interest = 8%

Rate of interest (Semiannual ) = 4%

So, we can calculate the the bond interest expense on the first interest payment by using following formula:

The bond interest expense = Bond carrying value × rate of interest (semiannual)

By putting the value we get

= $1,470,226 × 4%

= $58,809

6 0
2 years ago
An investment project has annual cash inflows of $2,800, $3,700, $5,100, and $4,300, for the next four years, respectively. The
lubasha [3.4K]

Answer:

Discounted payback period = 1.89 years

Explanation:

If Initial cost is $5,200

Year  Cash flow   Present value   Present value      Discounted

                                 at 11%                                       Cumulative cash flow

0          -5,200             1                      -5,200              -5,200

1            2,800           0.9009             2,523               -2,677

2           3,700           0.811                  3,003                326

3            5,100           0.73126              3,729                4,055

4            4,300          0.6587               2,833                6,887

Discounted payback period = 1 + (2,667/3003)

=1.89 years

Working

PV= (1+i)^-n

i= 11%, n= respective years 0,1,2,3,4

6 0
2 years ago
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