Well I wild have to say 6x4=24
Answer: A y=4x -5 and y=4x+5
Step-by-step explanation:
They have no solutions because they have the same slopes but different y intercepts. That works with any equation.
Answer:
Step-by-step explanation:
THESE ARE THE CORRECT ANSWERS
Answer
given,
thickness of a flange on an aircraft component is uniformly distributed between 0.95 and 1.05 millimeters.
X = U[0.95,1.05] 0.95≤ x ≤ 1.05
the cumulative distribution function of flange
F(x) = P{X≤ x}=
=
b) P(X>1.02)= 1 - P(X≤1.02)
= 
= 0.3
c) The thickness greater than 0.96 exceeded by 90% of the flanges.
d) mean = 
= 1
variance = 
= 0.000833
(a) 0.059582148 probability of exactly 3 defective out of 20
(b) 0.98598125 probability that at least 5 need to be tested to find 2 defective.
(a) For exactly 3 defective computers, we need to find the calculate the probability of 3 defective computers with 17 good computers, and then multiply by the number of ways we could arrange those computers. So
0.05^3 * (1 - 0.05)^(20-3) * 20! / (3!(20-3)!)
= 0.05^3 * 0.95^17 * 20! / (3!17!)
= 0.05^3 * 0.95^17 * 20*19*18*17! / (3!17!)
= 0.05^3 * 0.95^17 * 20*19*18 / (1*2*3)
= 0.05^3 * 0.95^17 * 20*19*(2*3*3) / (2*3)
= 0.05^3 * 0.95^17 * 20*19*3
= 0.000125* 0.418120335 * 1140
= 0.059582148
(b) For this problem, let's recast the problem into "What's the probability of having only 0 or 1 defective computers out of 4?" After all, if at most 1 defective computers have been found, then a fifth computer would need to be tested in order to attempt to find another defective computer. So the probability of getting 0 defective computers out of 4 is (1-0.05)^4 = 0.95^4 = 0.81450625.
The probability of getting exactly 1 defective computer out of 4 is 0.05*(1-0.05)^3*4!/(1!(4-1)!)
= 0.05*0.95^3*24/(1!3!)
= 0.05*0.857375*24/6
= 0.171475
So the probability of getting only 0 or 1 defective computers out of the 1st 4 is 0.81450625 + 0.171475 = 0.98598125 which is also the probability that at least 5 computers need to be tested.
