Answer:
$2475000
Explanation:
The computation of the cost of goods sold for the June month is shown below:
As it is given that total sales of June is $2,970,000
And, the marked up is cost plus 20%
So based on the above information, the cost of goods sold is
= $2,970,000 × 100 ÷ 120
= $2,475,000
Therefore, all the other information which is given is not relevant. Hence, ignored it
Answer:
$24 favorable
Explanation:
The formula to compute the variable overhead efficiency variance is shown below:
= (Actual machine hours - standard machine hours) × variable overhead per hour
where,
Actual machine hours is 2,270 machine hours
The standard machine hours is 2,280 hours and the standard variable manufacturing overhead rate is $2.40
Now put these values to the above formula
So, the value would equal to
= (2,270 hours - 2,280 hours) × $2.40
= $24 favorable
Answer:
Shellhammer Company
Ending inventory = $712
Cost of goods sold = $2,492
Explanation:
a) Data and Calculations:
Date Item Units Unit Cost Total Cost
September 1 Inventory 100 $3.34 $334.00
September 8 Purchases 450 3.50 1,575.00
September 18 Purchases 350 3.70 1,295.00
September 30 Total 900 $3,204.00
Ending inventory 200
Cost of goods sold 700
Weighted Average cost = Total cost of goods available for sale/Total units available for sale
= $3,204/900 = $3.56
Value of Ending Inventory = $3.56 * 200 = $712
Value of Cost of goods sold = $3.56 * 700 = $2,492
b) The weighted average inventory costing, under the period inventory system, used by Shellhammer is an assumption that the costs attributable to ending inventory and cost of goods sold are determined from the average cost per unit and that these the average cost is ascertained at the end of the period. Therefore, the cost of beginning inventory and purchases are accumulated and divided by the units of goods available for sale.
<span>What type of risk analysis does this chart represent? This chart shows the qualitative and quantitative risk analysis. This analysis is used to identify and rate potential threats the organization may have. Companies perform risk analysis often because they work with risk. This helps them better understand the risks they may be facing and how to make the best decisions regarding them. </span>
Answer:
A. D1 = 1.50*1.06 = 1.59
D2 = 1.59*1.06 = 1.69
D3 = 1.69*1.06 = 1.79
B. PV of D1=(1.50*1.06)/1.13^1=1.41
PV of D2=(1.50*1.06^2)/1.13^2=1.32
PV of D3=(1.50*1.06^3)/1.13^3=1.24
PV of all dividend = (1.50*1.06)/1.13^1 + (1.5*1.06^2)/1.13^2 + (1.5*1.06^3)/1.13^3
PV of all dividend = 1.59/1.13 + 1.6854/1.2769 + 1.786524/1.442897
PV of all dividend = 1.407079646 + 1.319915 + 1.238150748
PV of all dividend = 3.965145814288893
PV of all dividend = 3.97
C. PV = 27.05/(1+13%)^3
PV = 27.05/(1.13)^3
PV = 27.05/1.442897
PV = 18.74701
PV = 18.75
D. The most you should pay for it
:
= (1.50*1.06)/1.13^1+(1.5*1.06^2)/1.13^2+(1.5*1.06^3)/1.13^3+27.05/1.13^3
=22.71
E. Value = (1.50*1.06)/(13%-6%)
Value = 1.59 / 7%
Value = 1.59 / 0.07
Value = 22.714286
Value =22.71
F. No, the value is not dependent on the holding period, you can see from above that the value of infinite time period estimated in E equals to the value calculated when there was 3 years holding period.
