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aliina [53]
2 years ago
5

Water flows downward through a vertical 10-mm-diameter galvanized iron pipe with an average velocity for 5.0 m/s and exits as a

free jet. There is a small hole in the pipe 4 meters above the outlet. Will water leak out of the pipe through this hole, or will air enter into the pipe through the hole? Repeat the problem if the average velocity is 0.5 m/s.
Engineering
1 answer:
aalyn [17]2 years ago
6 0

Answer:

In case of 5 m/s:

P_1=0.045*\frac{4}{0.01}*9800*\frac{(5)^2}{2*9.8}-9800*4\\  P_1=185800 N/m^2=1.85800*10^5 N/m^2

P_1>P_2 i.e P_1>0, It means Water will leak out of hole.

In case of 0.5 m/s:

P_1=0.052*\frac{4}{0.01}*9800*\frac{(0.5)^2}{2*9.8}-9800*4\\  P_1=-36600N/m^2=-3.6600*10^4 N/m^2

P_1<P_2 i.e P_1<0. It means air will enter into the pipe.

Explanation:

Note:

Values of constant v,f and \gamma can vary according to the conditions. Value taken below are taken from water properties table.

According to Bernoulli Equation: Considering the frictional affects \frac{fL}{D}

\frac{P_1}{\gamma}+\frac{V^2_1}{2g}+z_1= \frac{P_2}{\gamma}+\frac{V^2_2}{2g}+\frac{fL}{D}\frac{V^2_2}{2g}+z_2

Where:

P_2 is the pressure at other end of pipe(outlet)=0

P_1 is the pressure at hole

V_1=V_2=V

z_1=4 m\\z_2=0

Above equation will become:\frac{P_1}{\gamma}= \frac{fL}{D}\frac{V^2_2}{2g}-z_1

L=z_1

{P_1} = \gamma\frac{fL}{D}\frac{V^2_2}{2g}-{\gamma}z_1

Calculating Re number:

Re=\frac{VD}{v}

Where:

V is the velocity

D is the diameter

v is the kinematic viscosity of water. Lets consider it 1.12*10^{-6}m^2/s. However kinematic viscosity can be taken according to temperature.

In case of 5 m/s:

Re=\frac{5*0.01}{1.12*10^{-6}}=44642.85

For  galvanized iron pipe , Roughness coefficient ε is 0.15 mm

\frac{\epsilon}{D}=\frac{0.15}{10}=0.015

From  Moody Charts, At above Re and \frac{\epsilon}{D}, Value of friction coefficient f is≈0.045.

\gamma≈9800 N/m^2

P_1=0.045*\frac{4}{0.01}*9800*\frac{(5)^2}{2*9.8}-9800*4\\  P_1=185800 N/m^2=1.85800*10^5 N/m^2

P_1>P_2 i.e P_1>0, It means Water will leak out of hole.

In case of 0.5 m/s:

Same above Procedure:

Calculating Re:

Re=\frac{0.5*0.01}{1.12*10^{-6}}=4464.285

\frac{\epsilon}{D}=\frac{0.15}{10}=0.015

From  Moody Charts, At above Re and \frac{\epsilon}{D}, Value of friction coefficient f is≈0.052.

P_1=0.052*\frac{4}{0.01}*9800*\frac{(0.5)^2}{2*9.8}-9800*4\\  P_1=-36600N/m^2=-3.6600*10^4 N/m^2

P_1<P_2 i.e P_1<0. It means air will enter into the pipe.

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Answer:

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Step 2: Calculating the prantl number using the formula;

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Step3: Calculating the reynolds number using the formula;

Re = 4m/πDμ

    = 4 *0.006/π*12*10⁻³ * 221.6 *10⁻⁷

    = 0.024/8.355*10⁻⁷

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Since Re is greater than 2000, the flow is turbulent. Nu becomes;

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(b)

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h₀ = Nu*k/D

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