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Inessa05 [86]
1 year ago
10

Company A uses an accelerated depreciation method while Company B uses the straight-line method. All other things being equal, d

uring the first few years of the asset's use, Company B will show which of the following compared to Company A?
a. A smaller fixed asset turnover ratio and a larger gain on asset disposal.
b. A larger fixed asset turnover ratio and a smaller gain on asset disposal.
c. A smaller fixed asset turnover ratio and a smaller gain on asset disposal.
d. A larger fixed asset turnover ratio and a larger gain on asset disposal.
Business
1 answer:
babymother [125]1 year ago
5 0

Answer:

d. A larger fixed assets turnover ratio and a larger gain on asset disposal

Explanation:

Accelerated depreciation is a method of depreciation whereby the book value of an asset is rapidly depreciated or reduced i.e at an accelerated rate.

This method usually minimizes taxable income in the initial years as a higher amount of depreciation is claimed.

Fixed assets turnover ratio refers to what percentage of net sales is attributable to an entity's fixed assets. It is expressed as:

\frac{Net\ Sales}{Average\ Fixed\ Assets}

Gain on sale of asset disposal = Sale value - Book Value

Book Value =  Cost less accumulated depreciation till date

As can be seen, Average fixed assets balance would reduce thereby increasing fixed assets turnover ratio.

Similarly, due to higher depreciation charged, Book Value would be comparatively less, which would lead to larger gain on assets disposal in the initial years.

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9) Marshall Corporation has established a target capital structure of 35 percent debt and 65 percent common equity. The current
Snezhnost [94]

Answer:

\boldsymbol{ Weighted\;average\;cost\;of\;capital (WACC)=5.35\%}

Explanation:

This acts as more of a discount price for such an estimation of such a fixed present price of a company. It is often used to analyze investments when it is supposed to measure the opportunity price of the company. It is then used by corporations as the obstacle limit.

Let the total cost of equity to be Re = 5% = 0.05.

Let the market value to be E = 65% = 0.65.

Let V to the total market cost that combined debt and equity = 1 .

Let the total price of debt to Rd = 10% = 0.1.

Let the debt to be D = 35% = 0.35.

Let the income tax rate to be Tc = 40% = 0.4.

                WACC=\frac{E}{V}\times Re + \frac{D}{V} \times Rd \times(1-Tc)

                             =\frac{0.65}{1} \times0.05+\frac{0.35}{1} \times0.1\times(1-0.4)=5.35\%

5 0
1 year ago
Ivan Boston is a regional sales manager for Unisys, a large manufacturer of computer systems. As such, Ivan is responsible for s
Westkost [7]

Answer:

A. Wide span of management control and flat organizational height

Explanation:

Span of management is defined as number of subordinates that a manger can control efficiently. In case of George Brown, the regional sales manager which takes care of the sales person throughout the region has wide span of management. Also, the organization is a flatter organization as the numbers of managerial posts are less and the span is large.

Thus, the correct option is (a) wide span of management control and flat organizational height.

7 0
2 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Great Western Southern purchased $525,000 of equipment four years ago. The equipment is seven-year MACRS property. The firm is s
tester [92]

Answer: $153,782.70

Explanation:

The MACRS allowance percentages are as follows, commencing with Year 1: 14.29, 24.49, 17.49, 12.49, 8.93, 8.92, 8.93, and 4.46 percent.

In 4 years, the depreciation would be:

= Cost price * (4 year deprecation)

= 525,000 * (14.29% + 24.49% + 17.49% + 12.49%)

= $360,990

Book value :

= 525,000 - 360,990

= $164,010

Gain (loss) = Sale price - Book value

= 150,000 - 164,010

= ($14,010)

Tax payable = (14,010) * 27%

= ($3,782.70)

After-tax cash flow:

= Selling price - Taxes

= 150,000 - (-3,782.70)

= $153,782.70

<em>Note: If there are options, beware of rounding errors and pick nearest option. </em>

6 0
2 years ago
On February 1, 2021, Arrow Construction Company entered into a three-year construction contract to build a bridge for a price of
just olya [345]

Answer:

% of completion= 33.7% for 2021

% of completion = 55.4% for 2022

% of completion = 100% for 2023

Gross profit/loss  =   $696,770 for 2021

Gross profit/loss =  -$141,660  for 2022

Gross profit/loss = -$400,000  for 2023

Explanation: 

See the table below

Year          Actual cost       Total incurred cost       Total estimated cost

2021        $2,070,000        $2,070,000                  $6,140,000

2022       $2,620,000        $4,690,000                  $8,470,000

2023       $3,920,000        $8,610,000                    $8,610,000

Percentage of completion is calculated using the formula;

% of completion =  Total incurred cost /Total estimated cost *100

For 2021:

% of completion = $2,070,000 /$6,140,000 *100

                           =0.337 *100

                            =33.7%

For 2022:

% of completion = $4,690,000 /$8,470,000 *100

                           =0.554 *100

                           = 55.4%

For 2023:

% of completion = $8,610,000 / $8,610,000 *100

                            =1 * 100

                             = 100%

             

Revenue and Gross profit or loss recognized in 2021, 2022 and 2023

For 2021:                                           Previous year       Recognized in 2021

Price                    $8,210,000  

%completion         33.7%  

Revenue                $2,766,770                    0                     $2,766,770

Expenses                $2,070,000                  0                     $2,070,000

Gross profit/loss     $696,770                                              $696,770

For 2022:                                       Previous year       Recognized in 2022

Price                    $8,210,000  

%completion        55.4%

Revenue              $4,548,340              $2,766,770              $1,781,570        

Expenses             $4,690,000             $2,070,000            $2,620,000            

Gross profit/loss   -$141,660                                             -$838,430

For 2023:                                         Previous year       Recognized in 2023

Price                     $8,210,000  

%completion          100%

Revenue                $8,210,000           $4,548,340        $3661660        

Expenses               $8,610,000           $4,690,000       $3920000

Gross profit/loss = -$400,000                                     -$258340

2. Journal Entries for 2021:

Year General Journal                        Debit                 Credit

2021 Construction in progress      $2,070,000

                Various accounts                                                 $ 2,070,000

          (Construction cost incurred)

          Accounts receivable               $2,570,000

               Billings on construction                                        $2,570,000

                 

               Cash                                   $2,320,000

               Accounts receivable                                 $2,320,000

              Construction in progress           $696,770  

              Cost of construction             $2,070,000

        Revenue from long-term contracts                       $2,766,770

4 0
2 years ago
Your project to obtain charitable donations is now 30 days into a planned 40-day project. The project is divided into three acti
adell [148]

Answer:

1. schedule variance = -$52,500

2. SPI = 0.65

3. CPI = 0.56

Explanation:

to get the solution, we calculate for BRWS and BRWP

first we calculate the budgeted revenue of the work scheduled for each activity using this formula:

<u>budgeted</u><u> </u><u>revenue</u><u> </u><u>*</u><u> </u><u>planned</u><u> </u><u>completion</u>

A = 25,000 x 100percent

= $25000

B = 150,000 x (25/30) percent

= $125000

C = 50000 x 0percent

= 0$

total = $25000+$125000+$0

= $150000

Next we calculate budgeted revenue of work performed (brwp)

<em>calculated using this formula</em>:

<u>budgeted revenue x actual </u><u>completion</u>

A = 25000 x 90percent

= 22500 dollars

B = 150000 x 50percent

= $75000

C = 50000 x 0%

= $0

total = 22500 + 75000 + 0

= $97500

<u>1</u><u>.</u><u> </u><u>schedule</u><u> variance</u><u> </u><u>=</u><u> </u><u>BRWP </u><u>-</u><u> </u><u>BRWS</u>

<u>=</u><u> </u>$97500 - $150000

= -$52500

<em>we </em><em>have</em><em> a</em><em> </em><em>negative</em><em> </em><em>schedule</em><em>,</em><em> </em><em>telling</em><em> </em><em>us </em><em>that </em><em>the </em><em>project</em><em> </em><em>is </em><em>behind</em><em> </em><em>schedule</em>

<em>2</em><em>.</em><em> </em><u>schedule</u><u> </u><u>performance</u><u> </u><u>index </u><u>=</u><u> </u><u>revenue</u><u> </u><u>of </u><u>work </u><u>performed</u><u> </u><u>divided </u><u>by </u><u>revenue</u><u> of</u><u> work</u><u> </u><u>schedule</u>

<u>=</u><u> </u>97500/150000

= 0.65

3. <u>cost price index = revenue of work performed divided by actual revenue</u>

= 97500/175000

= 0.56

4. <u>how </u><u>the </u><u>project</u><u> </u><u>is </u><u>going</u><u>:</u>

the schedule performance index (SPI) is 0.65 which is less than 1. this is to say that the project is doing better than planned revenue when we talk of revenue

4 0
1 year ago
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