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IRINA_888 [86]
2 years ago
14

Before prorating the manufacturing overhead costs at the end of 2020, the Cost of Goods Sold and Finished Goods Inventory accoun

ts had applied overhead costs of $59,300 and $38,000 in them, respectively. There was no Work-in-Process at the beginning or end of 2020. During the year, manufacturing overhead costs of $92,000 were actually incurred. The balance in the Applied Manufacturing Overhead was $97,300 at the end of 2020. If the under or overapplied overhead is prorated between Cost of Goods Sold and the inventory accounts, how much will be allocated to the Finished Goods Inventory
Business
2 answers:
kondor19780726 [428]2 years ago
7 0

Answer:

The over applied overhead which is allocated to finished goods inventory is $ 1,488.54

Explanation:

Determination of over or under applied overhead

Applied Manufacturing overhead                                      $ 97,300      

Actual factory overhead incurred                                      <u>$ 92,000</u>

Overapplied manufacturing overhead                              $    5,300

Allocation of over applied overhead is on basis of values in Cost of goods sold and Finished goods inventory.

Cost of goods Sold                     $ 59,300

Finished Goods inventory          <u>$ 38,000</u>

Sum of COGS and Inventory      $ 97.300

Over applied Overhead      $ 5,300

Allocation Finished Goods inventory

$38,000/ $ 97,300 * $ 5,300 = $ 1,488,54

Allocation Cost of Goods sold

$ 59.300/ $ 97,300  * $ 5,300 = $ 3.811.46

AnnZ [28]2 years ago
5 0

Answer:

$2069

Explanation:

Given

Applied overhead costs of Goods sold = $59,300

Applied overhead cost of finished goods = $38,000

Overhead Balance = $97,300

Overhead Cost = $92,000

Overapplied Overhead = Overhead Balance - Overhead Cost

Overapplied Overhead = $97,300 - $92,000

Overapplied Overhead = $5,300

Allocated Amount = (Applied Overhead * Finished Goods /(Overapplied Overhead)

Allocated Amount = ($5,300 * $38,000) ($59,300 + $38,000)

Allocated Amount = ($5,300 * 38,000) (97,300)

Allocated Amount = $2069

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tester [92]

Answer:

rework the units by spending $750 extra in order to get $1,500 in revenue

Explanation:

The company incurred in the following sunk costs:

  • production costs = $2 per unit

Since the 500 units were all defective the company can:

sell the defective units at $1 each = $1 x 500 = $500 revenue

reworking the units for $1.50 each and selling them for $3 ⇒ contribution margin = $3 - $1.50 = $1.50 per unit, which results in a $750 gross profit

The company must consider the $1,000 spent first as sunk costs, since whatever action they decide, they will not recover them. Therefore the company must only analyze the alternatives starting from scratch.  

5 0
2 years ago
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You are evaluating two different silicon wafer milling machines. The Techron I costs $285,000, has a three-year life, and has pr
KonstantinChe [14]

Answer:

EAC Techron I = -$141,050

EAC Techron II = -$138,181

Explanation:

Techron I costs $285,000, has a three-year life, and has pretax operating costs of $78,000 per year. Salvage value $55,000, use straight line depreciation.

annuity factor = [1 - 1/(1 + r)ⁿ] / r = [1 - 1/(1 + 0.11)³] / 0.11 = 2.4437

depreciation expense per year = ($285,000 - $55,000) / 3 = $76,667

cash outflow years 1 and 2 = [($78,000 + $76,667) x (1 - 24%)] - $76,667 = ($154,667 x 0.76) - $76,667 = $40,880

cash outflow year 3 = [($78,000 + $76,667) x (1 - 24%)] - $76,667 - $55,000 = ($154,667 x 0.76) - $76,667 - $55,000 = -$14,120

NPV = -285,000 - 40,880/1.11 - 40,880/1.11² + 14,120/1.11³ = -285,000 - 36,829 - 33,179 + 10,324 = -344,684

EAC = NPV / annuity factor = -344,684 / 2.4437 = -$141,050

Techron II costs $495,000, has a five-year life, and has pretax operating costs of $45,000 per year. Salvage value $55,000, use straight line depreciation.

annuity factor = [1 - 1/(1 + r)ⁿ] / r = [1 - 1/(1 + 0.11)⁵] / 0.11 = 3.6959

depreciation expense per year = ($495,000 - $55,000) / 5 = $88,000

cash outflow years 1 through 4 = [($45,000 + $88,000) x (1 - 24%)] - $88,000 = ($133,000 x 0.76) - $88,000 = $13,080

cash outflow year 5 = [($45,000 + $88,000) x (1 - 24%)] - $88,000 - $55,000 = ($133,000 x 0.76) - $88,000 - $55,000 = -$41,920

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EAC = NPV / annuity factor = -510,703 / 3.6959 = -$138,181

4 0
2 years ago
An individual works downtown and pays $600 per month in rent for an apartment located 10 miles from her office. She has calculat
zmey [24]

Answer:

Option (B) is correct.

Explanation:

For a 20 workday month,

cost of gas and productivity = $4 per day

cost of commuting = cost of gas and productivity × 20 workday month

                               = $4 × 20

                               = $80.

The total rent he is paying currently is $600 per month that does not include the commuting cost.

Hence, the individual must willing to pay a total of:

= Total rent + Cost of commuting

= $600 + $80

= $680 for an apartment downtown.

Thus, the total amount to be paid willingly is $680.

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2 years ago
Barry and his wife Mary, have accumulated over $3.5 million during their 50 years of marriage. They have three children and five
Olegator [25]

Answer:

$224,000

Explanation:

The money which Berry and Mary gift to their children and grand children in 2017 without any gift tax liability is as follows:

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According to the policy, they can gift up to $14,000, without gaining any gift tax liability.

So, amount given by them is $14,000 x 3 (number of children) x 2 (Barry and Mary) = $84,000

Grandchildren :

According to the policy, Barry and Mary can gift up to $14,000 without gaining any gift tax liability.

So, amount given by them is $14,000 x 5(number of children) x 2 (Barry and Mary) = $140,000

And therefore, the total amount of estate removed from Barry and Mary's estate is as follows:

$84,000 + $140,000 = $224,000

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2 years ago
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professor190 [17]

Answer: Yes it was a reasonable response to the change.

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2 years ago
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