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IRINA_888 [86]
2 years ago
14

Before prorating the manufacturing overhead costs at the end of 2020, the Cost of Goods Sold and Finished Goods Inventory accoun

ts had applied overhead costs of $59,300 and $38,000 in them, respectively. There was no Work-in-Process at the beginning or end of 2020. During the year, manufacturing overhead costs of $92,000 were actually incurred. The balance in the Applied Manufacturing Overhead was $97,300 at the end of 2020. If the under or overapplied overhead is prorated between Cost of Goods Sold and the inventory accounts, how much will be allocated to the Finished Goods Inventory
Business
2 answers:
kondor19780726 [428]2 years ago
7 0

Answer:

The over applied overhead which is allocated to finished goods inventory is $ 1,488.54

Explanation:

Determination of over or under applied overhead

Applied Manufacturing overhead                                      $ 97,300      

Actual factory overhead incurred                                      <u>$ 92,000</u>

Overapplied manufacturing overhead                              $    5,300

Allocation of over applied overhead is on basis of values in Cost of goods sold and Finished goods inventory.

Cost of goods Sold                     $ 59,300

Finished Goods inventory          <u>$ 38,000</u>

Sum of COGS and Inventory      $ 97.300

Over applied Overhead      $ 5,300

Allocation Finished Goods inventory

$38,000/ $ 97,300 * $ 5,300 = $ 1,488,54

Allocation Cost of Goods sold

$ 59.300/ $ 97,300  * $ 5,300 = $ 3.811.46

AnnZ [28]2 years ago
5 0

Answer:

$2069

Explanation:

Given

Applied overhead costs of Goods sold = $59,300

Applied overhead cost of finished goods = $38,000

Overhead Balance = $97,300

Overhead Cost = $92,000

Overapplied Overhead = Overhead Balance - Overhead Cost

Overapplied Overhead = $97,300 - $92,000

Overapplied Overhead = $5,300

Allocated Amount = (Applied Overhead * Finished Goods /(Overapplied Overhead)

Allocated Amount = ($5,300 * $38,000) ($59,300 + $38,000)

Allocated Amount = ($5,300 * 38,000) (97,300)

Allocated Amount = $2069

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AMC Corporation currently has an enterprise value (EV) of $400 million and $100 million in excess cash. The firm has 10 million
algol [13]

Answer:

a. AMC's share price prior to the share repurchase is $ 50 per share

b. AMC's share price after the repurchase if its enterprise value goes up is $75.00 per share

Explanation:

a. In order to calculate AMC's share price prior to the share repurchase we would have to make the following calculation:

AMC's share price prior to the share repurchase=Market Capitalization/Number of shares outstanding

According to the given data Number of shares outstanding=10 million shares

Market Capitalization=Enterprise Value + Cash in Hand

Market Capitalization=$400 million + $100 million

Market Capitalization=$500 million

Therefore, AMC's share price prior to the share repurchase=$500 Million / 10 million shares

AMC's share price prior to the share repurchase= $ 50 per share

b. To calculate AMC's share price after the repurchase if its enterprise value goes up we would have to make the following calculation:

AMC's share price after the repurchase if its enterprise value goes up=Market Capitalization/Number of shares outstanding after repurchase

According to the given data After the share repurchase, news will come out that will change AMC's enterprise value to $600 million, hence, Market Capitalization=$600 million

Number of shares outstanding after repurchase=Number of shares outstanding-Number of shares repurchased

Number of shares repurchased= Cash used for repurchase / Market Price per share

Number of shares repurchased=$ 100 million / $ 50 per share

Number of shares repurchased= 2 million shares

Hence, Number of shares outstanding after repurchase=10 million - 2 million

Number of shares outstanding after repurchase=8 million

Therefore, AMC's share price after the repurchase if its enterprise value goes up=$600 million/ 8 million

AMC's share price after the repurchase if its enterprise value goes up=$75.00 per share

5 0
2 years ago
Jennifer’s Boutique has 2,100 shares outstanding at a market price per share of $26. Sally’s has 3,000 shares outstanding at a m
goldenfox [79]

Answer:

c. $57,100

Explanation:

The computation of the value of Jennifer’s Boutique to Sally is shown below:

= (Number of shares outstanding ×  market price per share) + (incremental value of the acquisition)

= 2,100 shares ×$26 + $2,500

= $54,600 + $2,500

= $57,100

We simply find out the market value and then added it to the incremental value of the acquisition

All other information which is given is not relevant. Hence, ignored it

4 0
2 years ago
Judi Pendergrass is an account representative at Ever Pharmaceuticals. She has a company car for customer visits, which she uses
scoundrel [369]

Answer: None

Explanation: The IRS commuting rule allows for business travel expenses to be deducted as business expenses but this does not apply to commuting expenses.

Business travel expenses include Judi driving the company car to customer's locations or using any other form of transportation to meet a client. It even covers travelling by plane to another state for the same purpose.

It however does not apply to travelling between home and work, this is a daily travel expense as you need to get to work anyway.

8 0
2 years ago
Kiyara (single) is a 50 percent shareholder of Jazz Corporation (an S Corporation). Kiyara does not do any work for Jazz Corp. J
Airida [17]

Answer and Explanation:

a. The computation of Kiyara’s deduction for qualified business income is shown below:-

Kiyara's Share of income is

= 50% × $332,000

= $166,000

Max qualified business deduction is

= 20% × $166,000

= $33,200

b. The computation of Kiyara’s net investment income tax liability is shown below:-

Net investment income tax liability = $166,000 × 3.8%

= $6,308

c. The computation of Kiyara’s self-employment tax liability is shown below:-

Kiyara is not earning Jazz Corp.'s self-employment taxable income because Kiyara is not doing work for Jazz Corp.

Hence, the tax liability for self-employment is 0.

d. The computation of Kiyara’s additional Medicare tax liability is shown below:-

Additional medicare tax liability

= $282,000 - $200,000

= $82,000 × 0.9%

= $738

5 0
2 years ago
A manufacturer shipped units of a certain product to two locations. The equation above shows the total shipping cost TTT, in dol
andriy [413]

Answer: 2,200 units.

Explanation:

The complete exercise is:

T = 5c + 12 f

A manufacturer shipped units of a certain product to two locations. The equation above shows the total shipping cost T, in dollars, for shipping c units to the closer location and shipping f units to the farther location. If the total shipping cost was $47,000 and 3,000 units were shipped to the farther location, how many units were shipped to the closer location?

Given the following equation:

T = 5c + 12 f

You know that "T" is the total shipping cost (in dollars), "c" is the number of units shipped to the closer location and "f" is the number of units shipped to the farther location.

Based on the information given in the exercise, you can identify that, in this case:

T=47,000\\\\f=3,000

Then, knowing those values, you need to substitute them into the given equation:

47,000 = 5c + 12(3,000)

And finally, you must solve for "c" in order to calculate the number of units that  were shipped to the closer location.

You get that this is:

47,000 = 5c + 12(3,000)\\\\47,000-36,000 = 5c\\\\11,000=5c\\\\\frac{11,000}{5}\\\\c=2,200

3 0
2 years ago
Read 2 more answers
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