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WINSTONCH [101]
2 years ago
10

If a student attends every management science class, the probability of passing the course is 0.80; but if the student only atte

nds randomly, then the probability of passing the course is 0.50. If a student fails, they can take a makeup test where the probability of passing is 0.60 if the student has attended every class. This probability of passing the makeup test drops to 0.10 if the student has attended at random. Passing the course is worth 5 credits. Full time attendance "costs" 3 credits in terms of energy and time whereas random attendance "costs" only 1 credit.Use a decision tree to decide which is the best attendance pattern to adopt.

Business
1 answer:
goldfiish [28.3K]2 years ago
4 0

Answer:

EV of node 4 = 0.6×5 + 0.4×0 = 3

EV of node 5 = 0.1×5 + 0.9×0 = 0.5

EV of node 2 = (0.8×5 + 0.2×EV of node 4) - 3

EV of node 2 = (0.8×5 + 0.2×3 ) - 3

EV of node 2 = 4.6 - 3

EV of node 2 = 1.6

EV of node 3 = (0.5×5 + 0.5×EV of node 5) - 1

EV of node 3 = (0.5×5 + 0.5×0.5 ) - 1

EV of node 3 = 2.75 - 1

EV of node 3 = 1.75

EV of node 3 is higher, therefore, best attend pattern is to attend randomly.

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Protec Company, whose target capital structure is 40% debt, 15% preferred, and 45% common equity. The after-tax cost of debt is
taurus [48]

Answer:

The correct answer is 8.23%.

Explanation:

According to the scenario, the computation can be done as:

WACC of debt = Respective costs of debt× Respective weight of debt

= (0.4 × 5)

= 2

WACC of preferred = Respective costs of preferred × Respective weight of preferred

= (0.15 × 7)

= 1.05

WACC of common equity = Respective costs of common equity × Respective weight of retained earning

= (0.45 × 11.5)

= 5.175

So, Total WACC = WACC of debt + WACC of preferred + WACC of common equity

= 2 + 1.05 + 5.175

= 8.225 or 8.23 (approx.)

3 0
2 years ago
The ledger of Tamarisk, Inc. at the end of the current year shows Accounts Receivable $109,000; Sales Revenue $830,000; and Sale
Rashid [163]

Answer:

(A)

bad debt expense 1,500 debit

account receivable 1,500 credit

(B)

bad debt expense 9,490

allowance for doubtful accounts 9,490

(C)

bad debt expense 10,015

allowance for doubtful accounts 10,015

Explanation:

(A)

Direct write-off doesn't use allowance,

bad debt is done directly to account receivable.

(B)

allowance = 11% of AR = 11% of 109,000 = 11,990

                                             balance (2,500 credit)

11,990 - 2,500 = 9,490

(C)

allowance = 9% of AR = 9% of 109,000 = 9810

                                                         balance 205 debit

9,810 + 205 = 10,015

Comments: the allowance is expected to be 9% or 11% of AR

so the goal for B and C is to reach a final balance of 9% or 11% of AR

so we have to subtract the balance from the expected allowance to knwo the adjustment.

5 0
2 years ago
A bond with a face value of $1,000 has 10 years until maturity, carries a coupon rate of 8.6%, and sells for $1,140. Interest is
nordsb [41]

Answer:

Price of bond=948.8583731

Explanation:

<em>The value of the bond is the present value(PV) of the future cash receipts expected from the bond. The value is equal to present values of interest payment plus the redemption value (RV). </em>

Value of Bond = PV of interest + PV of RV

Semi-annual interest = 8.6% × 1,000 × 1/2 =43

Semi-annual yield = 9.4%/2=4.7 %

<em>PV of interest payment</em>

PV = A  (1- (1+r)^(-n))/r

A- 43, r-0.047, n- 20

= 43× (1-(1.047)^(-10)/0.047)

= 549.7724893

<em>PV of redemption Value</em>

PV = F × (1+r)^(-n)

F-1000, r-0.047, n- 20

PV = 1,000 ×   1.047^(-20)

PV = 399.0858837

Price of Bond

549.772 + 399.085

=948.8583731

4 0
2 years ago
Presented here is basic financial information (in millions) from the annual reports of Nike and Adidas.
Zinaida [17]

Answer and Explanation:

Nike

$18,627÷ ($2,494.7a+ $2,795.3b)/2

$18,627÷$2,645 = 7.0 times

Adidas

$10,299÷$1,415c+ $1,459d)/2

10,299÷$1 437= 7.2 times

2,566.2 – 71.5

b2,873.7 – 78.4

c1,527 – 112

d1,570 – 111

Average collection period

Nike

365÷7.0= 52.1 days

Adidas

365÷7.2

= 50.7 days

Therefore Adidas's accounts receivable turnover was about 3% higher [(7.2 – 7.0) ÷7.0] than that of Nike's, which simply means that Adidas was slightly more efficient than Nike in turning accounts receivable into cash.

8 0
2 years ago
Your Insurance company bills you $687.89 every 6 months for your premium payments. You decide to pay per month.
eimsori [14]

Answer:

$114.65

Explanation:

If you divide $687.89 by 6 months you'll get $114.64833333333333333 but if you simply you'll get 114.65 and you'll only pay $0.11 over.

3 0
2 years ago
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