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Nat2105 [25]
2 years ago
7

Which of the following statements is​ FALSE? A. According to the constant dividend growth​ model, the value of the firm depends

on the current dividend​ level, divided by the equity cost of capital plus the grow rate. B. A firm can only pay out its earnings to investors or reinvest their earnings. C. Successful young firms often have high initial earnings growth rates. D. Estimating​ dividends, especially for the distant​ future, is difficult.
Business
1 answer:
Vedmedyk [2.9K]2 years ago
4 0

<u>A. According to the constant dividend growth​ model, the value of the firm depends on the current dividend​ level, divided by the equity cost of capital plus the grow rate.</u>

This is the false statement.

<u>Explanation</u>:

The fair value of stock can be calculated using the dividend growth model. While calculating the value of the stock, the growth of the dividends should be considered either in a stable rate or at a different rate during the period at hand.

The dividend growth model is also known as a <u>valuation model</u> as it is used to achieve the value of the stock.

Equity cost is the cost that the firm owes to the equity investors to compensate the risk of their investment.

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Consider the following projects, X and Y where the firm can only choose one. Project X costs $600 and has cash flows of $400 in
Maksim231197 [3]

Answer:

Neither any of the projects should be accepted

Explanation:

In this question, we have to use the net present value formula which is shown below:

Net present value = Present value of all years cash flows  - Initial investment

where,

The Present value of cash inflows is calculated by applying the discount rate which is presented below:

For this, we have to first compute the present value factor which is computed by a formula

= 1 ÷ (1 +rate) ∧ number of year

number of year = 0

number of year = 1

Number of year = 2

So,

Rate = 25%

For year 1 = 0.800 (1 ÷ 1.25) ∧ 1

For year 2 = 0.640 (1 ÷ 1.25) ∧ 2

Now, multiply this present value factor with yearly cash inflows

So

For Project A,

The present value of year 1 = $400 × 0.800 = $320

The present value of year 2 = $400 × 0.640 = $256

and the sum of all year cash inflow is $576

So, the Net present value would be equal to

= $576 - $600 = -24

And,

For Project B,

The present value of year 1 = $500 × 0.800 = $400

The present value of year 2 = $275 × 0.640 = $176

and the sum of all year cash inflow is $576

So, the Net present value would be equal to

= $576 - $600 = -24

Since in both the projects, the NPV is negative.

Hence, neither any of the projects should be accepted

4 0
2 years ago
Three years ago, the U.S. dollar/euro exchange was 1.32 USD/EUR. Over the last three years, the price level in the United States
jeyben [28]

Answer:

A. increased, and Eurozone goods are now more expensive to U.S. customers

Explanation:

The exchange rate represents a link between domestic prices and foreign prices, so Three years ago, Price in the Eurozone was:

P1 (US)= 1.32 USD / EUR * P1 (Eurozone)

Now, after three years of inflation, the new prices are

P2 (US)= 1.18* P1 (US)

P2 (EUROZONE) = 1.12 *P1 (EUROZONE)

So, if we replace in the equation =

P2 (US)/1.18 = 1.32 * P2 ( EUROZONE)/1.12

P2 (US) = (1.32 * 1.18)/1.12 *P2 (EUROZONE)

P2 (US) = 1.39 P2 (EUROZONE)

As we can see, the teorical exchange rate should be 1.39 but we have a REAL exchange rate of 1.4, which is greater, the prices are now more expensive to US customers

6 0
2 years ago
Thomas Textiles Corporation began November with a budget for 60,000 hours of production in the Weaving Department. The departmen
netineya [11]

Answer:

a) $12,500 unfavorable

b) 0

Explanation:

variable factory overhead controllable variance = actual variable overhead expense - (standard variable overhead per unit x standard number of units)

actual variable overhead expense = $725,000

standard variable overhead per unit = $712,500 / 60,000 = $11.875

standard number of units = 60,000

variable factory overhead controllable variance = $725,000 - $712,500 = $12,500 unfavorable

Controllable factory overhead is not related to any changes in the actual volume or quantity produced.

Fixed factory overhead volume variance = actual fixed overhead - standard fixed overhead = $262,500 - $262,500 = 0

Fixed overhead was exactly the same as the standard or budgeted overhead.

6 0
2 years ago
Mullen Company purchased a new machine costing $55,200 on January 1, 2017. The machine is expected to have a $3,600 salvage valu
viva [34]
A. 8,600 is the answer
8 0
2 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Order the bond types below from lowest to highest risk of default.
Ymorist [56]

Answer:

According to the risk of default from lowest to highest:

1. U.S. Treasury bonds.

2. Corporate bonds.

3. Junk bonds

Explanation:

Bonds are ways through which a governments and corporations are able to raise money in-order to finance the big projects.

It is issued to the public through a mapped out auction based in months or years validity. <em>And, by buying a bond, you're giving the issuer a loan, and they agree to pay you back the face value of the loan on a specific date, and to pay you periodic interest payments.</em>

4 0
2 years ago
Read 2 more answers
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