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Sladkaya [172]
2 years ago
8

The price per night for a hotel room is different at three different hotels.

Mathematics
1 answer:
ddd [48]2 years ago
4 0

Answer:

B

Step-by-step explanation:

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Let P2 be the vector space of all polynomials of degree 2 or less, and let H be the subspace spanned by 10x2+4xâ1, 3xâ4x2+3, and
lord [1]

I suppose

H=\mathrm{span}\{10x^2+4x-1,3x-4x^2+3,5x^2+x-1\}

The vectors that span H form a basis for P_2 if they are (1) linearly independent and (2) any vector in P_2 can be expressed as a linear combination of those vectors (i.e. they span P_2).

  • Independence:

Compute the Wronskian determinant:

\begin{vmatrix}10x^2+4x-1&3x-4x^2+3&5x^2+x-1\\20x+4&3-8x&10x+1\\20&-8&10\end{vmatrix}=-6\neq0

The determinant is non-zero, so the vectors are linearly independent. For this reason, we also know the dimension of H is 3.

  • Span:

Write an arbitrary vector in P_2 as ax^2+bx+c. Then the given vectors span P_2 if there is always a choice of scalars k_1,k_2,k_3 such that

k_1(10x^2+4x-1)+k_2(3x-4x^2+3)+k_3(5x^2+x-1)=ax^2+bx+c

which is equivalent to the system

\begin{bmatrix}10&-4&5\\4&3&1\\-1&3&-1\end{bmatrix}\begin{bmatrix}k_1\\k_2\\k_3\end{bmatrix}=\begin{bmatrix}a\\b\\c\end{bmatrix}

The coefficient matrix is non-singular, so it has an inverse. Multiplying both sides by that inverse gives

\begin{bmatrix}k_1\\k_2\\k_3\end{bmatrix}=\begin{bmatrix}-\dfrac{6a-11b+19c}3\\\dfrac{3a-5b+2c}3\\\dfrac{15a-26b+46c}3\end{bmatrix}

so the vectors do span P_2.

The vectors comprising H form a basis for it because they are linearly independent.

4 0
2 years ago
Quinn returned home one summer's day to find it sweat-inducingly hot! He turned the air conditioner on and fell asleep. The room
Alenkasestr [34]

Answer:

f(x)=-0.5x+40

Step-by-step explanation:

To solve this problem, we need to find the linear function. We know that the constant rate of change is -0.5° Celsius per minute. Also, after 60 minutes the temperature was 10° Celsius. So, we have a one point and the slope of the linear function, let's use the point-slope formula

y-y_{1} =m(x-x_{1} )\\y-10=-0.5(x-60)\\y=-0.5x+30+10\\y=-0.5x+40

Where the y-intercept is at (0, 40).

Now, we have two points to graph the relation between minutes and Celsius degrees.

Therefore, the room's temperature as a function of time is

f(x)=-0.5x+40

Its graph is attached.

5 0
2 years ago
Which of the following best describes the slope of the line below? pls help asap
Harlamova29_29 [7]

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

Undefined.

3 0
1 year ago
Read 2 more answers
Simplify 2(3×8-15÷16)<br>​
KengaRu [80]

Answer:

46.125 or 46 1/8

Step-by-step explanation:

2(3×8-15÷16)

=2(24-15÷16)

= 48 - 30/16

= (768 - 30)/16

= 738/16

= 46.125 or 46 1/8

8 0
2 years ago
A box contains 5 red and 5 blue marbles. Two marbles are withdrawn randomly. If they are the same color, then you win $1.10; if
topjm [15]

Answer:

a) The expected value is \frac{-1}{15}

b) The variance is  \frac{49}{45}

Step-by-step explanation:

We can assume that both marbles are withdrawn at the same time. We will define the probability as follows

#events of interest/total number of events.

We have 10 marbles in total. The number of different ways in which we can withdrawn 2 marbles out of 10 is \binom{10}{2}.

Consider the case in which we choose two of the same color. That is, out of 5, we pick 2. The different ways of choosing 2 out of 5 is \binom{5}{2}. Since we have 2 colors, we can either choose 2 of them blue or 2 of the red, so the total number of ways of choosing is just the double.

Consider the case in which we choose one of each color. Then, out of 5 we pick 1. So, the total number of ways in which we pick 1 of each color is \binom{5}{1}\cdot \binom{5}{1}. So, we define the following probabilities.

Probability of winning: \frac{2\binom{5}{2}}{\binom{10}{2}}= \frac{4}{9}

Probability of losing \frac{(\binom{5}{1})^2}{\binom{10}{2}}\frac{5}{9}

Let X be the expected value of the amount you can win. Then,

E(X) = 1.10*probability of winning - 1 probability of losing =1.10\cdot  \frac{4}{9}-\frac{5}{9}=\frac{-1}{15}

Consider the expected value of the square of the amount you can win, Then

E(X^2) = (1.10^2)*probability of winning + probability of losing =1.10^2\cdot  \frac{4}{9}+\frac{5}{9}=\frac{82}{75}

We will use the following formula

Var(X) = E(X^2)-E(X)^2

Thus

Var(X) = \frac{82}{75}-(\frac{-1}{15})^2 = \frac{49}{45}

7 0
2 years ago
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