Answer: a. $5.50
b. $6.1
c. $3,500,000
Explanation:
a. From the question, we are informed that Hawar International is a shipping firm with a current share price of $5.50 and 10 million shares outstanding and that Hawar announces plans to lower its corporate taxes by borrowing $20 million and repurchasing shares.
We are informed that Hawar announces plans to lower its corporate taxes by borrowing $20 million and repurchasing shares. This is a transaction and therefore, the value if the share won't be changed. So, the value for the share will still be $5.50.
b. If the only imperfection is corporate tax rate of 30%, the share price after this announcement will be:
= [30% × (20million/10million)] + $5.50
= [0.3 × 2] + $5.50
= $0.6 + $5.50
= $6.1
Therefore, the share price be after this announcement will be $6.1.
c. If the share price rises to $5.75 after this announcement, the PV of financial distress costs Hawar will incur as the result of this new debt will be:
= ($6.1 - $5.75) × 10,000,000
= $0.35 × 10,000,000
= $3,500,000
Answer: Option A
Explanation: Capital budgeting is the process by which an analyst using different tools such as discounted cash flow, future cash flow and payback period tries to evaluate the prospective long term investments of an organisation.
Accrual accounting method is an accounting convention and not a capital budgeting tool. It states that every transaction of the entity must be recorded on accrual basis.
Thus from the above we can conclude that the correct option is A.
Answer:
Option (a) is correct.
Explanation:
EBIT:
= Revenues - Fixed operating costs - (variable cost ratio × revenues)
= $32.2 - $20.8 - (0.30 × 32.2)
= 1.74 million
KH's degree of total leverage:
= (EBIT + Fixed cost) ÷ (EBIT - Interest)
= (1.74 + 20.8) ÷ [(1.74 - (9% × 10)]
= 26.83
Therefore, the KH's degree of total leverage is 26.83.
Answer:
Explanation:
East division segment margin = Contribution margin - Direct fixed expense
Contribution margin = $240,000*35% = $84,000
Direct fixed expenses = $48,000
So segment margin is 84,000 - 48000
= $36000
Answer is option A
Answer:
$128,787.07
Explanation:
Initial investment = $2.32 million = $2,320,000
Depreciation = investment ÷ Useful life
= $2,320,000 ÷ 3
= $773,333.33
Operating cash flows from year 1 to year 3
= [ ( Sales - Costs - Depreciation ) × (1 - tax) ] + Depreciation
= [ ( $1,735,000 - $650,000 - $773,333.33 ) × (1 - 0.21) ] + $773,333.33
= 1019549.99 ≈ 1,019,550
Thus,
NPV = Present value of cash inflows - Present value of cash outflows
Also,
Initial investment =
- 2,320,000
or
NPV = $128,787.07