Decrease = Rs 800- Rs 640= Rs 160
Percentage decrease = (Decreased amount / Original amount) * 100
= 640/ 800 * 100 = 80%
Answer:
1445
Step-by-step explanation:
2601*(9/9-4/9)
case 1,
Let the CP be ₹x,
SP = ₹2400
Profit = SP – CP
= 2400 – x
Profit % = {(2400–x)/ x} × 100%
According to the question,
{(2400–x)/ x} × 100 = 25
=> (2400–x)/ x= 25 /100
=> 100(2400–x) = 25x [ cross multiplication]
=> 240000 – 100x = 25x
=> 240000 = 25x + 100x
=> 240000 = 125x
=> 240000/125 = x
=> x = 1920
So, CP = ₹1920
case 2,
SP = ₹2040
Profit = SP – CP
= 2040 – 1920
= ₹120
profit % = 120/1920 × 100%
= 16%
<h3>Thus, his profit would be 16% if he had sold his goods for ₹2040.</h3>
Answer:
Step-by-step explanation:
Let A = Adam, B = Betty
Adam and Betty purchased a printer together for $258.
This means we can say A + B = 258.
We are also told Adam paid $18 less than twice Betty.
You can write this as:
Adam = 2 x Betty - 18
A = 2B - 18
Substitute "A" into the A + B equation and you get:
A + B = 258
2B - 18 + B = 258
3B - 18 = 258
Add 18 to both sides.
3B = 258 + 18
3B = 276
Divide both sides by 3 to find B
B = 276/3 = 92 (This means Betty paid $92).
Since the total that they paid together was $258.
This means Adam pays the Total - How much Betty paid
Adam = 258 - 92 = $166
we know that
The probability that "at least one" is the probability of exactly one, exactly 2, exactly 3, 4 and 5 contain salmonella.
The easiest way to solve this is to recognise that "at least one" is ALL 100% of the possibilities EXCEPT that none have salmonella.
If the probability that any one egg has 1/6 chance of salmonella
then
the probability that any one egg will not have salmonella = 5/6.
Therefore
for all 5 to not have salmonella
= (5/6)^5 = 3125 / 7776
= 0.401877 = 0.40 to 2 decimal places
REMEMBER this is the probability that NONE have salmonella
Therefore
the probability that at least one does = 1 - 0.40
= 0.60
the answer is
0.60 or 60%