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pav-90 [236]
2 years ago
7

40% of one spig is a spoog. 25% of a speeg is a spoog. 70% of a speeg is a spug. what percent of 1 spig is 5 spugs?

Mathematics
1 answer:
mariarad [96]2 years ago
6 0

Answer:

            5 spugs is 560% of 1 spig

Step-by-step explanation:

a - spig

b - speeg

c - spoog

d - spug

40% of one spig is a spoog:  40%a = c

25% of a speeg is a spoog:    25%b = c

70% of a speeg is a spug:       70%b = d

what percent of 1 spig is 5 spugs?:     x%a = 5d

40%a = c  and  25%b = c

40%a = 25%b

b=\frac{40\%a}{25\%}=1.6a

d = 70%b = 70%•1.6a = 112%a

x%a = 5d

x%a = 5•112%a

÷a         ÷a

x% = 560%      

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bogdanovich [222]

Answer:

Option B.

Polygon JKLP maps to polygon MNOP through a rotation.

Step-by-step explanation:

The picture of the question in the attached figure

we know that

If two figures are congruent, then its corresponding sides and its corresponding angles are congruent

In this problem

JK≅MN

KL≅NO

LP≅OP

JP≅MP

and

∠OPM≅∠LPJ

∠NOP≅∠KLP

∠ONM≅∠LKJ

∠NMP≅∠KJP

so

Polygon JKLP maps to polygon MNOP through a rotation clockwise around point P an angle equal to ∠JPM

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2 years ago
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meg measured the length of some pieces of wire..what is the difference between the longest and shortest piece of wire
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The long wire is longer and the short wire is shorter
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2 years ago
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Matthew invested $3,000 into two accounts. One account paid 3% interest and the other paid 8% interest. He earned 4% interest on
boyakko [2]

<u>Answer:</u>

<em>Mathew invested</em><em> $600 and $2400</em><em> in each account.</em>

<u>Solution:</u>

From question, the total amount invested by Mathew is $3000. Let p = $3000.

Mathew has invested the total amount $3000 in two accounts. Let us consider the amount invested in first account as ‘P’

So, the amount invested in second account = 3000 – P

Step 1:

Given that Mathew has paid 3% interest in first account .Let us calculate the simple interest (I_1) earned in first account for one year,

\text {simple interest}=\frac{\text {pnr}}{100}

Where  

p = amount invested in first account

n = number of years  

r = rate of interest

hence, by using above equation we get (I_1) as,  

I_{1}=\frac{P \times 1 \times 3}{100} ----- eqn 1

Step 2:

Mathew has paid 8% interest in second account. Let us calculate the simple interest (I_2) earned in second account,

I_{2} = \frac{(3000-P) \times 1 \times 8}{100} \text { ------ eqn } 2

Step 3:

Mathew has earned 4% interest on total investment of $3000. Let us calculate the total simple interest (I)

I = \frac{3000 \times 1 \times 4}{100} ----- eqn 3

Step 4:

Total simple interest = simple interest on first account + simple interest on second account.

Hence we get,

I = I_1+ I_2 ---- eqn 4

By substituting eqn 1 , 2, 3 in eqn 4

\frac{3000 \times 1 \times 4}{100} = \frac{P \times 1 \times 3}{100} + \frac{(3000-P) \times 1 \times 8}{100}

\frac{12000}{100} = \frac{3 P}{100} + \frac{(24000-8 P)}{100}

12000=3P + 24000 - 8P

5P = 12000

P = 2400

Thus, the value of the variable ‘P’ is 2400  

Hence, the amount invested in first account = p = 2400

The amount invested in second account = 3000 – p = 3000 – 2400 = 600  

Hence, Mathew invested $600 and $2400 in each account.

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Renee spent 1/8 of the day landscaping around the house. She spent 1/2 of that time pulling weeds. What fraction of the day did
pantera1 [17]
If you want the common denominator, then 1/2 is 4/8. I hope that answers your question :)
5 0
2 years ago
After getting 10% discount a customer paid RS 2034 with 13% VAT to buy a bag from a retailer. If the retailer made a profit of 2
german

Answer:

33.33%

Step-by-step explanation:

We are told that the customer paid Rs. 2034 after getting 10% discount with 13% vat on marked price (m.p.)

hence:-

2034 = m.p. × 90/100 × 113/100

m.p = (2034 × 100 × 100)/(90 × 113)

m.p. = Rs.2000

Now, due to the fact that VAT (which in this question is given to be 13%) is not the profit of the retailer, thus the selling price (s.p.) of the bag would be given by;

s.p = m.p. × 90/100

s.p = 2000 × 90/100

s.p = Rs. 1800

We are told that the retailer made a profit of 20%

Thus:-

c.p. × 120/100 = s.p.

c.p.= s.p. × 100/120

c.p.= 1800 × 100/120

c.p. = Rs.1500

Therefore, the percentage with which he marked above the c.p is;

% mark up = (m.p - c.p)/c.p) × 100

Plugging in the relevant values, we have;

(2000 - 1500)/1500) × 100

(500/1500) × 100 = 33.33%

7 0
2 years ago
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