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Alisiya [41]
2 years ago
7

Diego Company manufactures one product that is sold for $73 per unit in two geographic regions—the East and West regions. The fo

llowing information pertains to the company’s first year of operations in which it produced 56,000 units and sold 51,000 units. Variable costs per unit: Manufacturing: Direct materials $ 24 Direct labor $ 16 Variable manufacturing overhead $ 2 Variable selling and administrative $ 3 Fixed costs per year: Fixed manufacturing overhead $ 784,000 Fixed selling and administrative expense $ 672,000 The company sold 38,000 units in the East region and 13,000 units in the West region. It determined that $300,000 of its fixed selling and administrative expense is traceable to the West region, $250,000 is traceable to the East region, and the remaining $122,000 is a common fixed expense. The company will continue to incur the total amount of its fixed manufacturing overhead costs as long as it continues to produce any amount of its only product. Foundational 6-10 10. What would have been the company’s variable costing net operating income (loss) if it had produced and sold 51,000 units? You do not need to perform any calculations to answer this question.
Business
1 answer:
I am Lyosha [343]2 years ago
5 0

Answer:

Net operating income= (28,000)

Explanation:

Giving the following information:

Selling price per unit= $73

Total unitary variable production cost= (24 + 16 + 2 + 3)= $45

Fixed manufacturing overhead $ 784,000

Fixed selling and administrative expense $ 672,000

<u>Under the variable costing method, the fixed manufacturing overhead is a period cost instead of a product cost.</u>

<u />

Variable costing income statement:

Sales= 73*51,000= 3,723,000

Total variable cost= 51,000*45= (2,295,000)

Contribution margin= 1,428,000

Fixed manufacturing overhead= (784,000)

Fixed selling and administrative expense= (672,000)

Net operating income= (28,000)

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When Nina tells her manager that she doesn't feel she needs to attend various training sessions at company expense or utilize su
Virty [35]

Answer:

The right answer is, False.

Explanation:

Nowadays companies seek to improve the attitudes, knowledge and skills of their employees, through training activities so that everyone works synergistically in achieving the objectives of organizations.

3 0
2 years ago
Arrange the types of investments in the correct order from the least risky to the most risky investment.
sammy [17]
There are many types of investments. Some of them the given types of investment in the list.
A. Property are ownership investments. They are Real estate investments ( houses, apartment buildings, townhouses, and vacation houses. )
<span>They are the most volatile and profitable class of investment.
B. Bonds are lending investments. when </span>an investor effectively is loaning money to a company or agency (the issuer) in exchange for periodic interest payments plus the return of the bond’s face amount when the bond matures.
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D. Mutual funds are investment <span>funds collected from many investors for the purpose of investing in securities such as stocks, bonds, money market instruments and similar assets.</span>
The order from the least risky to the most risky investment is:
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A. Property
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8 0
2 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Urban’s, which is currently operating at full capacity, has sales of $47,000, current assets of $5,100, current liabilities of $
Nataly_w [17]

Answer:

AE = Increase in Assets - Increase in Liabilities - Profit × (1- payout ratio)

= [($51,500 + $5,100)×0.03 - ($6,200)×0.03 - ($47,000×1.03×0.05)×(1-0)]

= -$908.50

<em>Here, it can be clearly denoted that the firm does not need to raise the additional equity .</em>

Explanation:

Given :

Sales = $47,000

Current assets = $5,100

Current liabilities = $6,200

Net fixed assets = $51,500

Profit margin = 5 %

Sales are expected to increase by 3 percent next year

∴

The additional equity financing(AE) can be computed as follow:

AE = Increase in Assets - Increase in Liabilities - Profit × (1- payout ratio)

= [($51,500 + $5,100)×0.03 - ($6,200)×0.03 - ($47,000×1.03×0.05)×(1-0)]

= -$908.50

Here, it can be clearly denoted that the firm does not need to raise the additional equity .

6 0
2 years ago
The following information is taken from Reagan Company's December 31 balance sheet: Cash and cash equivalents $ 9,119 Accounts r
lozanna [386]

Answer:

40 days.

Explanation:

In the absence of the information about opening receivables, the closing figure is assumed to be the average accounts receivables,

Hence,

Debtors Turnover Ratio for Reagan:

= Sales ÷ Average Accounts Receivables

= $608,000 ÷ $73,922

= 8.22 times

Assuming that the number of days in a year as 365,

the firm's days sales uncollected for the year works out to:

= 365 days ÷ Debtors Turnover Ratio

= 365 ÷ 8.22

= 40.40 or 40 days.

4 0
2 years ago
On January 1, 2019, Shields, Inc., issued $800,000 of 9%, 20-year bonds for $879,172, yielding a market (yield) rate of 8%. Semi
Ghella [55]

Answer:

cash 879,172 debit

   bonds payble   800,000 credit

   premium on BP    79,127 credit

--to record issuance--

Interest expense 35,166.84 debit

premium on BP      833.16 debit

cash                    36,000 credit

--to record first interest payment--

Interest expense 35133.52 debit

premium on BP          866.48 debit

cash                       36,000 credit

--to record second interest payment--

<em><u>Financial Statement effect:</u></em>

<em><u>Cash flow:</u></em>

financing:

proceed from bonds 879,172

interest paid                 72,000

<em><u>Net income</u></em>

interest expense 35,133.52 + 35,166.84 = 70.250,36

<em><u>Balance sheet</u></em>

Bonds payable   800,000

Premium on Bonds 77,471

Explanation:

The price will be the discounted future coupon and maturity payment at market rate

C \times \frac{1-(1+r)^{-time} }{rate} = PV\\

C 36,000.000 (800,000 x 9% x 1/2)

time 40 ( 20 years x 2)

rate 0.04 (8% x 1/2)

36000 \times \frac{1-(1+0.04)^{-40} }{0.04} = PV\\

PV $712,539.8598

\frac{Maturity}{(1 + rate)^{time} } = PV  

Maturity   800,000.00

time   40.00

rate  0.04

\frac{800000}{(1 + 0.04)^{40} } = PV  

PV   166,631.24

PV c $712,539.8598

PV m  $166,631.2357

Total $879,171.0955

The interest expense will be the carrying value times market rate

the cash outlay will be the same for each period:

principal x coupon rate x half-year as payment are semiannual.

800,000 x 0.09 x 1/2 = 36,000

The difference between each one will determinate the amortization onthe premium

6 0
2 years ago
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