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AnnyKZ [126]
2 years ago
10

The firm has just declared a dividend of $1.09 per share for the current fiscal year. The firm has earnings per share of $2.11,

and 225,000 shares outstanding with a market price of $31.17 per share prior to the ex-dividend day. Ignore taxes. As a result of this dividend, the: A) the current dividend yield is 51.66% B) retained earnings will increase by $245,250. C) the current dividend payout ratio is 3.497% D) earnings per share will increase to $3.20. E) price-earnings ratio will be 14.26 ex-dividend.
Business
1 answer:
Anna007 [38]2 years ago
4 0

Answer: E) price-earnings ratio will be 14.26 ex-dividend.

Explanation:

Stock prices generally decrease in price by the price of the dividend on ex-dividend date.

This means that this stock will reduce to:

= 31.17 - 1.09

= $30.08

Price to Earnings ratio = Stock price/ Earnings per share

= 30.08/2.11

= $14.26

<em>Option E is correct. </em>

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Answer:

Longhorn Goodwill=$7920

Longhorn should record goodwill on this purchase of $7920.

Explanation:

Longhorn Goodwill=Price Paid to Acquire - Total fair Assets

Total Fair Assets=Fair Value of Assets-Fair Value if Liabilities

Total Fair Assets= $89,900-$15,200

Total Fair Assets= $74,700

Longhorn Goodwill=Price Paid to Acquire - Total fair Assets

Longhorn Goodwill=$82,620-$74,700

Longhorn Goodwill=$7920

Longhorn should record goodwill on this purchase of $7920.

6 0
2 years ago
A freelance writer must choose how to spend her time working on several different types of projects. Newspaper stories take 3 ho
natali 33 [55]

45N + 400M + 20P ≥ 45 is the constraint that limits the amount of time the writer will work each week.

Explanation:

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7 0
2 years ago
Santa Corporation issued a bond on January 1 of this year with a face value of $1,000. The bond's coupon rate is 6 percent and i
vampirchik [111]

Answer:

1. Total of amortisation for 3 years = 16+17+19 = 52

Bonds issue price = 1000 - 52 = $948

2.

Bond is sold at discount.

Amount of discount = Amount of amortisation over 3 years

= $52

3.

Amount to be shown in balancesheet will be inclusive of the amortisation charge for the year

Bonds payable at the end of Year 1 = 948 + 16 = 964

Bonds payable at the end of Year 2 = 964 + 17 = 981

4.

a,

$60 is the amount of interest paid per annum. This is calulated on the facevalue of bond

$1,000x x6% = %60

b,

$77 is the interest expense for Year 2.

This is sum of Interest paid and Amortisation charge for the year

= 60 + 17 =77

c,

$17 is the amortization expence for Year 2

Opening balance of Bonds payable for Year 2 = $964

Market rate of interest = 8%

Interest charge for Year 2 = $77

Cash paid as interest = $60

Hence amortisaton charge for Year 2 = Interest expense - Interest paid = $77 - $60 = $17

d,

$981 is the balnce of balance of bonds payble after Year 2

Balance for Year 2 = Opening balance payable + Amortisation expence for the Year (arived from Step 4c above) = $964 + $17

= $981

8 0
2 years ago
Which strategy are you using when you only read the title, section headings, and captions?
wlad13 [49]
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4 0
2 years ago
An ordinary annuity selling at $4,947.11 today promises to make equal payments at the end of each year for the next eight years
Kryger [21]

Answer:

$812.49

Explanation:

Given that

Sale value of ordinary annuity = $4,947.11

Time period = 8 years

Interest rate = 6.50%

So by considering the above information, the annual annuity payment is

$4,947.11 = Annual annuity payment × Present value annuity factor at 6.5% for 8 years

$4,947.11 = Annual annuity payment × 6.0888

So, the annual annuity payment is $812.49

7 0
2 years ago
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