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NeTakaya
2 years ago
10

A 10-meter long ramp has a mechanical advantage of 5. What is the height of the ramp?

Physics
1 answer:
denpristay [2]2 years ago
6 0
<span><span>1.       </span>If the ramp has a length of 10 and has a mechanical advantage (MA) of 5. Then we need to find the height of the ramp.
Formula:
MA = L / H
Since we already have the mechanical advantage and length, this time we need to find the height .
MA 5 = 10 / h
h = 10 / 5
h = 2 meters

Therefore, the ramp has a length of 10 meters, a height of 2 meters with a mechanical advantage of 5.</span>



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inn [45]

Answer:

45 meters

Explanation:

20 min = 15 meters

So if 20 x 3 = 60

you have to do 3 x 15 !

- which equals to 45 <3

<u>- mark me brainlest pls . </u>

5 0
2 years ago
Th e heat capacity of air is much smaller than that of water, and relatively modest amounts of heat are needed to change its tem
Darina [25.2K]

Answer:

Q=1005 J

t= 0.67 sec

Explanation:

Lets take condition of room is 1 atm and 25°C.

Heat capacity ,c = 21 J /K.mol

If we assume that air is ideal gas that

P V = n R T

V= 5.5\times 6.5\times 3\ m^3

V=107.25\ m^3

V=107.25\times 1000 L

V= 107250 L

At STP number of moles given as

n=\dfrac{V}{V_{at\ S.T.P.}}

V=22.4 L at S.T.P.

n=\dfrac{107250}{22.4}\ moles

n=4787.94 moles

n= 4.784 Kmoles

So heat required to raise 10°C temperature

Q = n x c x ΔT

Q = 4.78794 x 21 x 10

Q=1004.64 J

Time t

t= Q/P

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4 0
2 years ago
Read 2 more answers
How many calories are equal to one BTU? (One calorie = 4.186 J, one BTU = 1 054 J.)
I am Lyosha [343]
<h2>Option C is the correct answer.</h2>

Explanation:

We need to find how many calories is 1 BTU.

Given

          1 BTU = 1054 J

          1 calorie = 4.186 J

So we have

          1 BTU = 4.186 x 251.79 J

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          1 BTU = 252 calorie.

Option C is the correct answer.

3 0
2 years ago
A circular loop of wire with a radius of 12.0 cm and oriented in the horizontal xy-plane is located in a region of uniform magne
Ulleksa [173]

(a) 34 V

The average emf induced in the loop is given by Faraday-Newmann-Lenz law:

\epsilon = -\frac{\Delta \Phi_B}{\Delta t} (1)

where

\Delta \Phi_B is the variation of magnetic flux through the coil

\Delta t = 2.0 ms = 0.002 s is the time interval

We need to find the magnetic flux before and after. The magnetic flux is given by:

\Phi_B = BA

where

B is the magnetic field intensity

A is the area of the coil

The radius of the coil is r = 12.0 cm = 0.12 m, so its area is

A=\pi r^2 = \pi (0.12 m)^2 = 0.045 m^2

At the beginning, the magnetic field is

B_i = 1.5 T

so the flux is

\Phi_i = B_i A = (1.5 T)(0.045 m^2)=0.068 Wb

while after the removal of the coil, the magnetic field is zero, so the flux is also zero:

\Phi_f = 0

so the variation of magnetic flux is

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And substituting into (1) we find the average emf in the coil

\epsilon=-\frac{-0.068 Wb}{0.002 s}=34 V

(b) Counterclockwise

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In this situation, the magnetic flux through the coil is decreasing, since the coil is removed from the field. So, the induced current must be such that it produces a magnetic field whose direction is the same as the direction of the external magnetic field, which is upward along the positive z-direction.

Looking down from above and using the right-hand rule on the loop (thumb: direction of the current, other fingers wrapped: direction of magnetic field), we see that in order to produce at the center of the coil a magnetic field which is along positive z-direction, the induced current must be counterclockwise.

4 0
2 years ago
A circular pipe of 25-mm outside diameter is placed in an airstream at 25C and 1-atm pressure. The air moves in cross flow over
kifflom [539]

Answer:

f_D = =3.24 N/m

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data given

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WE KNOW THAT

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f_D = C_D A_f*\frac{\rho v^2}{2}

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Drag coffecient for smooth circular cylinder is 1.1

therefore Drag force is

f_D = 1.1*0.025 *\frac{1.048*15^2}{2}

f_D = =3.24 N/m

4 0
2 years ago
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