Answer:
(a) 0.0833 or 8.33%
(b) 0.40 or 40%
Step-by-step explanation:
Parts line one (n1) = 1,000 parts
Defects line one (d1) = 100 parts
Parts line two (n2) = 2,000 parts
Defects line two (d2) = 150 parts
Total number of parts (n) = 3,000 parts
a. Probability of a randomly selected part being defective:
The probability is 0.0833 or 8.33%
b. Probability of a part being produced by line one, given that it is defective:
The probability is 0.40 or 40%.
Keywords:
<em>Divide, polynomial, quotient, divisor, dividend, rest
</em>
For this case, we must find the quotient by dividing the polynomial 
. We must build a quotient that, when multiplied by the divisor, eliminates the terms of the dividend until it reaches the rest, as shown in the attached figure. At the end of the division, to verify we must bear in mind that:
Answer:
See attached image
Answer:
x = 3
Step-by-step explanation:
2x = 6
x = 3 (Because we divide on both sides by 2 so that the x is by itself, 6/2 = 3)
A=30000+0.03S and B=25000+0.05S.
When A=B, 5000=0.02S, so S=$250000 when the earnings are the same.
The slope of A is smaller than that of B. In excess of this value of S B pays more than A and below it A pays more than B.
So answer option B. (When S=0, clearly A is better than B. Put S=$300000, A pays $39000 and B pays $40000).
Firstly you would times 475 by the percentage, which you can convert to a decimal my multiplying the percentage by 100.
475 * 0.02 = 9.50
Then divide the interest by the amount of interest per year:
38 / 9.5 = 4.
The answer would be 4 years.
Hope this helps.
