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hram777 [196]
1 year ago
7

Demarco and Tanya have received information about three separate mortgage offers. In two or three paragraphs, describe your reco

mmendation for the best financial choice in their situation.
Business
1 answer:
Alex787 [66]1 year ago
5 0

Answer: first one

As for Mortgage Option 3, not only is the interest rate higher (4.0%), but the remaining balance that is not paid has to be paid off completely in 8 years. After the down payment, they would have a $1,605 monthly payment which includes the fixed interest rate of 4.25% as well. Due to the short payment time, a borrower has a risk of loosing their home and equity if the final payment is not able to be made. Mortgage Option 2 has the lowest interest rate (3.5%) but these rates could be adjusted annually. Even though the interest rate is the highest, they would be able to afford it. Not only are they able to make these payments, Tanya and Demarco would also have. approximately $3,395 left to spend from their monthly earnings too.

Explanation:

credit to mohammedalm2

You might be interested in
Senath Company's annual report reveals net credit sales of $240,000 and average accounts receivable of $20,000. The report also
kirill115 [55]

Answer:

b. the average number of days to collect receivables is 31.

Explanation:

The calculation of average number of days is shown below:-

Accounts receivable turnover = Net credit sales ÷ Average accounts receivable

$240,000 ÷ $20,000

= 12    

Average number of days to collect receivable = Number of days in a year ÷ Accounts receivable turnover

= 365 ÷ 12

= 31 days

Therefore for computing the average number of days to collect receivable we simply divide accounts receivable turnover by number of days in a year.

7 0
2 years ago
Assume the current Treasury yield curve shows that the spot rates for six​ months, one​ year, and one and a half years are 1 %1%
Ludmilka [50]

Answer:

present value of bond = $1042.96

Explanation:

given data

spot rates for six​ months = 1%

spot rates for one and = 1.1%​

spot rates for one and half years = 1.3%​

price = $1000

coupon bond = 4.25%

time = 6 month

solution

we get here first price on bond paid that is

coupon paid = $1000 × 4.25 × 0.5   = $21.25

we get here present value of 6 month and 1 year and 1 and half  year

present value  =   \frac{coupon\ payment }{(1+\frac{spot \ rate}{2})^t}     ..............1

present value of 6 month = \frac{21.25}{(1+\frac{0.1}{2})^1}    = 20.23

present value of 1 year = \frac{21.25}{(1+\frac{0.011}{2})^2}   = 21.01  

present value of 1 year and half year = \frac{21.25}{(1+\frac{0.013}{2})^2}   =  20.97

and

now we get present value of par value in 1 and half year

present value of par value in 1 and half year = \frac{par\ value}{(1+\frac{spot rate}{2})^3}  

present value of par value in 1 and half year = \frac{1000}{(1+\frac{0.013}{2})^3}

present value of par value in 1 and half year = 980.75

so

present value of bond will be as

present value of bond = 20.23 + 21.01 + 20.97 + 980.75

present value of bond = $1042.96

5 0
1 year ago
Collin has extracted the following balances from the ledger accounts for his business: (All amounts in $) Plant and machinery 95
zaharov [31]

Answer:

Carriage outwards: 7,520 debit

Explanation:

Accounts                         DEBIT     CREDIT

Plant and machinery 95,000

Property                   135,000

Inventory                      6,400

Receivables                2,850

Payables                                           3,600

Bank overdraft                                     970

Loan                                                45,000

Capital                                            100,000

Drawings                 32,000

Sales                                             362,000

Carriage outwards               x

Purchases                156,000

Purchase returns                               2,200

Discounts received                            3,500

<u>Sundry expenses      82,500                          </u>

TOTAL                     509,750           517,270‬

We construct the trial balance and the carriage outwar balance will be the diference between debit and credit:

517,270 - 509,750 = 7,520

3 0
1 year ago
Which of the following is not associated with firms following the global standardization strategy? A. Low pressures for local re
zvonat [6]

Answer:

The correct option is D. Customize product offering and marketing strategy to local conditions

Explanation:

Global standardization strategy refers to the ability to use a particular standard of marketing internationally. In other words, it's the ability for an organization to use the same marketing strategy from one country to another country, and across various cultures.

What this means is that an organisation using the global standardization strategy will treat the world as largely one market and one source of supply with little local variation.

Therefore, the firms following the global standardization strategy will not Customize product offering and marketing strategy to local conditions .

4 0
2 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Astro Co. sold 20,000 units of its only product and incurred a $50,000 loss (ignoring taxes) for the current year as shown here.
Alexandra [31]

Answer:

Required 1.

Break even point (dollar sales) =   $750,000

Required 2.

Break even point (dollar sales) = $1,250,000

Required 3.

ASTRO COMPANY

Forecasted Contribution Margin Income Statement

For Year Ended December 31, 2016

Sales                             $ 1,000,000

Variable costs               ($ 400,000 )

Contribution margin      $ 600,000

Fixed costs                    ($ 450,000 )

Net loss                           $ 150,000

Required 4.

Sales to meet target profit (dollar sales) = $1,833,333

Sales to meet target profit (unit sales) = 73,334

Explanation:

Break even point is the level of activity where a Company neither makes a profit nor a loss.

<em>Break even point (dollar sales) = Fixed Cost / Contribution Margin Ratio</em>

Where,

Contribution Margin Ratio = Contribution / Sales

                                           = $ 200,000 / $ 1,000,000

                                           = 0.20

Therefore,

Break even point (dollar sales) = $250,000 / 0.20

                                                   = $1,250,000

<u>Assuming the machine is installed</u>

Contribution Margin Ratio = ($ 1,000,000 - $400,000) / $ 1,000,000

                                           = $600,000 / $1,000,000

                                           = 0.60

Therefore,

Break even point (dollar sales) = ($250,000 + $200,000) / 0.60

                                                   = $750,000

Sales to meet target profit of $200,000

Sales to meet target profit (dollar sales) = Fixed Cost + Target Profit  / Contribution Margin Ratio

                                                                  = ($450,000 + $200,000) / 0.60

                                                                  = $1,833,333

Sales to meet target profit (unit sales) = $1,833,333 / $25

                                                               = 73,334

                                                                 

4 0
2 years ago
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