Answer:
4
Step-by-step explanation:
Given that :
Clients are interviewed in groups of 2 on the first day; meaning two persons at a time
Second day, clients are interviewed in groups of 4; meaning 4 persons at a time.
Therefore, if the same number of clients are to be interviewed on each day, the smallest number of clients that could be interviewed each day could be obtained by getting the Least Common Multiple of both numbers: 2 and 4
- - - - 2 - - - 4
2 - - - 1 - - - 2
2 - - - 1 - - - 1
Therefore, the Least common multiple is (2 * 2) = 4
Therefore, the smallest number of clients that could be interviewed each day is 4.
First, let me do the Mathematical part of that, and then I shall explain the theory behind it.
Mathematical part:
We are going to multiply 513 with 46. So the two partial products that we are going to choose are 40 and 6.
Multiply 513 with 6 first.
513
x46
--------------------------
18 (as 6*3 = 18)
60 (as 6*10 = 60; In 513, the digit at tenths place is 1, so 1*10=10)
3000 (as 6*500 = 3000; In 513, 5 is at hundredth place, so 5*100=500)
120 (as 40*3 = 120; since 4 is at the tenth place, so 4*10=40)
400 (as 40*10 = 400)
20000 (as 40*500 = 20000)
--------------------------
23598 (Add all of them)
Theory:
As you can see above that we have chosen the two partial products individually which are 6 and 40. Since 4 in 46 is in tenth place, we have to consider it 40 (since 4*10 = 40). One by one, we first multiply 6 with 513. Then we move to the tenth place, and multiply 513 with 40. At the end, we have added all the results we found after multiplication.
Check: If we check the multiplication result by using the calculator, we would get the same result (23598).
Another Method (instant):
513 * (40+6) = (513*40) + (513*6) = 23598.
Answer:
42 i think
Step-by-step explanation:
this is sssniperwolf im on to talk to fans
sorry if its incorrect :3
Answer:
The correlation coeffcient for this case was provided:
r =0.934
And this coefficient is very near to 1 the maximum possible value, so then we can interpret that the relationship between the entrace exam score and the grade point average are strongly linearly correlated .
We can also find the 
who represent the determination coefficient and we got:
And the interpretation for this is that a linear model explains appproximately 87.2% of the variability between the two variables
Step-by-step explanation:
Previous concepts
The correlation coefficient is a "statistical measure that calculates the strength of the relationship between the relative movements of two variables". It's denoted by r and its always between -1 and 1.
And in order to calculate the correlation coefficient we can use this formula:
![r=\frac{n(\sum xy)-(\sum x)(\sum y)}{\sqrt{[n\sum x^2 -(\sum x)^2][n\sum y^2 -(\sum y)^2]}}](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=r%3D%5Cfrac%7Bn%28%5Csum%20xy%29-%28%5Csum%20x%29%28%5Csum%20y%29%7D%7B%5Csqrt%7B%5Bn%5Csum%20x%5E2%20-%28%5Csum%20x%29%5E2%5D%5Bn%5Csum%20y%5E2%20-%28%5Csum%20y%29%5E2%5D%7D%7D)
The correlation coeffcient for this case was provided:
r =0.934
And this coefficient is very near to 1 the maximum possible value, so then we can interpret that the relationship between the entrace exam score and the grade point average are strongly linearly correlated .
We can also find the who represent the determination coefficient and we got:
And the interpretation for this is that a linear model explains appproximately 87.2% of the variability between the two variables
Answer: 2/3
Step-by-step explanation: In this problem, we have 8/15 ÷ 4/5. Dividing by a fraction is the same as multiplying by its reciprocal. In other words, we can change the division sign to multiplication and flip the second fraction.
8/15 ÷ 4/5 can be rewritten as 8/15 × 5/4
Now, we are simply multiplying fractions so we multiply across the numerators and multiply across the denominators.
8/15 × 5/4 = 40/60 = 2/3
