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Kobotan [32]
2 years ago
11

Flyaway airline program offers 5 points for every mile flown plus a bonus of 20 points for every trip over 500 miles. My sky air

line program offers 7 points for Emile flown plus a bonus of 30 points for each trip. Which program gives more points for this itinerary?
Trip A 600 mi

Trip B 450 mi

Trip C 710 mi

Trip D 825 mi

Trip E 300 mi

Trip F 300 mi

Trip G 1000 mi

Trip H 545 mi
Mathematics
2 answers:
ivann1987 [24]2 years ago
5 0
Trip G at 1000 miles earning 5 points a mile plus an extra 20 for every 500
Goshia [24]2 years ago
4 0

Answer:

<h2>My Sky Airline gives more points, 33,350 points.</h2>

Step-by-step explanation:

<h3>Flyaway Airline</h3>

5 points for every mile flown plus a bonus of 20 points for every trip over 500 miles.

<h3>My Sky Airline </h3>

7 points for every mile flown plus a bonus of 30 points for each trip.

The itinerary has a total of 4,730 miles and 8 trips.

So, Flyaway Airline would give

5 \times 4730=23650

There are 5 tripes over 500 miles, so

20 \times 5 =100

Therefore, Flyaway Airline gives a total of 23,750 points.

On the other hand, My Sky Airline would give

7 \times 4730 = 33110

There are 8 total trips, so

30 \times 8 = 240

Therefore, My Sky Airline would give a total of 33,350 points.

So, with that itinerary, My Sky Airline gives more points, 33,350 points.

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kotegsom [21]
A
 (-2c-3d) (- 11) (- 2c-3d) (- 11) left parenthesis, minus, 2, c, minus, 3, d, right parenthesis, left parenthesis, minus, 11, right parenthesis
 C
 (66c + 99d) \ cdot \ dfrac {1} {3} (66c + 99d) ⋅ 3
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<span> E
 11\cdot(2c+3d)11⋅(2c+3d)11, dot, left parenthesis, 2, c, plus, 3, d, right parenthesis
</span> answer
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4 0
2 years ago
Read 2 more answers
(1 point) If f(t) is continuous for t≥0, the {\it Laplace transform} of f is the function F defined by F(s)=∫[infinity]0f(t)e−st
QveST [7]

Answer:

The Laplace transform of f(t) = 1 is given by

F(s) = (1/s) for all s>0

Step-by-step explanation:

Laplace transform of a function f(t) is given as

F(s) = ∫∞₀ f(t) e⁻ˢᵗ dt

Find the Laplace transform for when f(t) = 1

F(s) = ∫∞₀ 1.e⁻ˢᵗ dt

F(s) = ∫∞₀ e⁻ˢᵗ dt = (1/s) [-e⁻ˢᵗ]∞₀

= -(1/s) [1/eˢᵗ]∞₀

Note that e^(∞) = ∞

F(s) = -(1/s) [(1/∞) - (1/e⁰)]

Note that (1/∞) = 0

F(s) = -(1/s) [0 - 1] = -(1/s) (-1) = (1/s)

Hope this Helps!!!

8 0
2 years ago
Elise does not like sorbet, so she omits that ingredient and adds 5 percent of each of the other ingredients. How many cups of p
Arisa [49]

Answer:

20 cups of punch

Step-by-step explanation:

see the attached figure to better understand the problem

we know that

If Elise adds 5 percent of each of the other ingredients

then

the new percentages are

Ginger Ale=40%+5%=45%

Orange Juice=25%+5%=30%

Pineapple Juice=20%+5%=25%

Sorbet=0%

Find out how many cups of punch will she have if she uses 6 cups of orange juice, using proportion

Let

x ----> the total cups of punch

\frac{6}{30\%}=\frac{x}{100\%}\\\\x=6(100)/30\\\\x=20\ cups\ of\ punch

6 0
2 years ago
Two pumps connected in parallel fail independently of one another on any given day. The probability that only the older pump wil
Bogdan [553]

Answer : Probability that the pumping system will fail on any given day = 0.005

Explanation:

Probability that only older pump fail = P(A) = 0.10

Probability that only newer pump fail = P(B) = 0.05

Since they are independent events ,

then the conditions will be

P(A∩B) = P(A). P(B)

             = 0.10 ×0.05

             =  0.005

Hence, the probability will fail on any given day = 0.005

8 0
2 years ago
Pavi has a credit line of $8,000 on his credit card. Review the summary of his credit card statement. How much credit does Pavi
jekas [21]

Answer:

A. $3992.50

Step-by-step explanation:

Credit line - $8,000.00

Summary

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  • Credits  -  $1,500.00
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Available credit= credit line - new balance = $8000 - $4007.50= $3992.50

8 0
2 years ago
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