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Anni [7]
2 years ago
10

Differentiate with respect to t.. y = b cos t + t2 sin t

Mathematics
2 answers:
Marysya12 [62]2 years ago
6 0
We are given with the expression y<span> = b cos t + t2 sin t and is asked to differentiate the function in terms of t. Based in the power law and law of products, we apply these to the given expresssion. the derivative is y' = -b sin t + t^2 * (cos t) + sin t * 2t. This is equal to  </span>y' = sin t (-b +2t) + t^2 cos t.
Leni [432]2 years ago
6 0

Answer:

\frac{dy}{dt}=\sin t(-b+2t)+t^2\cos t

Step-by-step explanation:

Given : Equation y=b\cos t+t^2\sin t

To find : Differentiate with respect to t ?

Solution :

Equation y=b\cos t+t^2\sin t

Differentiate with respect to t,

\frac{dy}{dt}=\frac{d(b\cos t+t^2\sin t)}{dt}

\frac{dy}{dt}=\frac{d(b\cos t)}{dt}+\frac{d(t^2\sin t)}{dt}

We know, \frac{d(\cos x)}{dx}=-\sin x

Applying product rule, \frac{d}{dy}(u\cdot v) =u'v+v'u

\frac{dy}{dt}=-b\sin t+\frac{d(t^2)}{dt}\times \sin t+\frac{d(\sin t)}{dt}\times t^2

\frac{dy}{dt}=-b\sin t+2t\times \sin t+\cos t\times t^2

\frac{dy}{dt}=-b\sin t+2t\sin t+t^2\cos t

\frac{dy}{dt}=\sin t(-b+2t)+t^2\cos t

Therefore, \frac{dy}{dt}=\sin t(-b+2t)+t^2\cos t

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A probability calculator is required on this problem; answer to six decimal places. Suppose we will spin the wheel pictured 400
KiRa [710]

Answer:

P(90< X< 110)= P(\frac{90-80}{8}

And we can find this probability with this difference:

P(90< X< 110)=P(z

And we can find the real value with the following excel code using the binomial distribution:

"=BINOM.DIST(110,400,0.2,TRUE)-BINOM.DIST(89,400,0.2,TRUE)"

And we got 0.118 a very close value from the value obtained using the normal approximation

Step-by-step explanation:

Previous concepts

The binomial distribution is a "DISCRETE probability distribution that summarizes the probability that a value will take one of two independent values under a given set of parameters. The assumptions for the binomial distribution are that there is only one outcome for each trial, each trial has the same probability of success, and each trial is mutually exclusive, or independent of each other".

Let X the random variable of interest, on this case we now that:

X \sim Binom(n=400, p=0.2)

The probability mass function for the Binomial distribution is given as:

P(X)=(nCx)(p)^x (1-p)^{n-x}

Where (nCx) means combinatory and it's given by this formula:

nCx=\frac{n!}{(n-x)! x!}

We need to check the conditions in order to use the normal approximation.

np=400*0.2=80 \geq 10

n(1-p)=400*(1-0.2)=320 \geq 10

So we see that we satisfy the conditions and then we can apply the approximation.

If we appply the approximation the new mean and standard deviation are:

E(X)=np=400*0.2=80

\sigma=\sqrt{np(1-p)}=\sqrt{400*0.2(1-0.2)}=8

So then we can approximate the random variable as X \sim N(\mu = 80, \sigma = 8)

And we want this probability:

P(90< X< 110)

We can use the z score formula given by:

z = \frac{x -\mu}{\sigma}

And replacing we got:

P(90< X< 110)= P(\frac{90-80}{8}

And we can find this probability with this difference:

P(90< X< 110)=P(z

And we can find the real value with the following excel code using the binomial distribution:

"=BINOM.DIST(110,400,0.2,TRUE)-BINOM.DIST(89,400,0.2,TRUE)"

And we got 0.118 a very close value from the value obtained using the normal approximation

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Step-by-step explanation:

Because it b

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RideAnS [48]

Answer:

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where 0 represent impossibility and 1 represents the chance of it occurring.

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Ms. Nina has 10 lbs of 25% sugar syrup. How much water does she need to add to make 10% sugar syrup
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kaheart [24]
Tada, Its on the Image. Hoped I helped :)

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