Answer=24.49 I’m not 100% sure but I believe this is the answer :)
Hope it helps
Let p(x) be a polynomial, and suppose that a is any real
number. Prove that
lim x→a p(x) = p(a) .
Solution. Notice that
2(−1)4 − 3(−1)3 − 4(−1)2 − (−1) − 1 = 1 .
So x − (−1) must divide 2x^4 − 3x^3 − 4x^2 − x − 2. Do polynomial
long division to get 2x^4 − 3x^3 − 4x^2 – x – 2 / (x − (−1)) = 2x^3 − 5x^2 + x –
2.
Let ε > 0. Set δ = min{ ε/40 , 1}. Let x be a real number
such that 0 < |x−(−1)| < δ. Then |x + 1| < ε/40 . Also, |x + 1| <
1, so −2 < x < 0. In particular |x| < 2. So
|2x^3 − 5x^2 + x − 2| ≤ |2x^3 | + | − 5x^2 | + |x| + | − 2|
= 2|x|^3 + 5|x|^2 + |x| + 2
< 2(2)^3 + 5(2)^2 + (2) + 2
= 40
Thus, |2x^4 − 3x^3 − 4x^2 − x − 2| = |x + 1| · |2x^3 − 5x^2
+ x − 2| < ε/40 · 40 = ε.
P-.15p this is the expression for cost after discount
and its just .15p for just the discount
Answer:
B: $13.75
Step-by-step explanation:
5.5% of $250 = $13.75
Therefore, the simple interest is $13.75.
if the number of times spun is not a multiple of 8, it is impossible to land on an exactly even distribution for this spinner. But since the probabilities of landing on an exactly even distribution are so small, that detail doesn't perturb the overall trend, except perhaps down at n=8 spins So group 3
